Timing of the crucifixion etc

[Esaias]

So then when Jesus spoke about "with desire I have desired to eat this Passover with you" He may likely have been using a double entendre, hinting about the NEW Passover meal that they were in fact about to eat. Interestingly, there is no record of Jesus Himself eating the bread or drinking from the cup. Yet He says He will eat the Passover with His disciples once it was fulfilled in the kingdom of God.

[Esaias]

The one thing I can't seem to figure out is this: either Jesus ate the Passover at the right time and died at the wrong time, OR He ate the Passover at the wrong time but died at the right time, OR the Last Supper was not an old covenant Passover meal.

But even if that last supposition (!) be correct, it still raises the question: why wasn't everybody eating the Passover at the beginning/night portion of the 14th day of the first minth, as appears to be the Biblically commanded manner? And why didn't He die at that time instead of in the afternoon?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Esaias

The one thing I can't seem to figure out is this: either Jesus ate the Passover at the right time and died at the wrong time, OR He ate the Passover at the wrong time but died at the right time, OR the Last Supper was not an old covenant Passover meal.

But even if that last supposition (!) be correct, it still raises the question: why wasn't everybody eating the Passover at the beginning/night portion of the 14th day of the first minth, as appears to be the Biblically commanded manner? And why didn't He die at that time instead of in the afternoon?

Anyone?

[votivesoul]

Originally Posted by Esaias

The one thing I can't seem to figure out is this: either Jesus ate the Passover at the right time and died at the wrong time, OR He ate the Passover at the wrong time but died at the right time, OR the Last Supper was not an old covenant Passover meal.

But even if that last supposition (!) be correct, it still raises the question: why wasn't everybody eating the Passover at the beginning/night portion of the 14th day of the first minth, as appears to be the Biblically commanded manner? And why didn't He die at that time instead of in the afternoon?

I've read accounts indicating that the population of Jerusalem swelled to close to a million people during Passover. Of that number, even if only half or a third of that, how many constituted a family, bringing a lamb for sacrifice?

If, let's say, only 100,000 extra people made the trip to Jerusalem, and the average family size was 10, that's 10,000 lambs to slay. Even a thousand priests working around the clock, would never be able to slay that many lambs in an afternoon. It had to have taken several days.

So, maybe Jesus was the first "lamb" slain, or maybe He was the last "lamb" that was slain, or maybe somewhere in the middle, but the point is, His death could have fallen anywhere from the 14-15, and it wouldn't necessarily matter at all.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

I've read accounts indicating that the population of Jerusalem swelled to close to a million people during Passover. Of that number, even if only half or a third of that, how many constituted a family, bringing a lamb for sacrifice?

If, let's say, only 100,000 extra people made the trip to Jerusalem, and the average family size was 10, that's 10,000 lambs to slay. Even a thousand priests working around the clock, would never be able to slay that many lambs in an afternoon. It had to have taken several days.

So, maybe Jesus was the first "lamb" slain, or maybe He was the last "lamb" that was slain, or maybe somewhere in the middle, but the point is, His death could have fallen anywhere from the 14-15, and it wouldn't necessarily matter at all.

All historical documentation from the contemporary period that I am familiar with agree that the lambs were all slaughtered between about noon and I think it was either 3pm or 5pm on the afternoon of the 14th of Abib. Very busy, but apparently it was done.