Quote:
Originally Posted by Praxeas
yes you must have the Spirit already, but that does not make the gifts a different OPERATION of the same spirit
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Right, I understood andio as saying the opposite, as if manifestation and infilling could be done seperatly, I may be wrong , I will go back and reread his post.
You are making a lot of assertions but you have not shown scripturally where that is true. If they were FILLED then the Spirit was IN them. But where does it say the spirit did not reside, lived or stayed with anyone?
Off hand I can't, yet at the same time where else does it describe the filling of the Holy Ghost the way it does in 2 chorinthians 6:16 ?
In as much as we can disagree due to evidence being there we can also disagree from the lack thereof. The gifts of the spirit were manifested in the OT mostly in prophecy, yet the filling of the Holy Ghost was never described as God living, dwelling or walking in us. Our bodies were never described as a temple that God dwelled in. Not until Jesus was glorified.
If it were no different from the OT then what would have been so special about the coming of the Comforter if it had been in man since the beginning? How many times does it say the Holy Ghost fell on or filled Moses? I beleive several different occasions, why would he have to filled again if it lived or dwelled in him? In the NT when it speaks of the saints after the day of Pentecost is always says something to the nature of " Paul , having the Holy Ghost" ,,, it doesn't ever say any of the original "day of Pentecost" saints were ever "filled with the HG" after that day. Yet in the OT it repeats a filling of the Spirit on the same prophet several times through out his/her life.
You see why I'm saying what I am. It's the way the scripture speaks of the Holy Ghost from one to the other.
God Bless,