The apostle Paul, writing to the saints at Rome, says to them,
"But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his." (
Romans 8:9)
It appears Paul believed if one did not possess the Spirit of God dwelling in them [at the moment of their death] they are not considered as one of His saints. If such be the case, then I experience extreme difficulty in accepting the assertion that a simple acknowledgement of Christ Jesus as Savior when one is upon their "deathbed" can be construed as sufficient for salvation.
Concerning the thief on the cross alongside Christ Jesus, to whom our Lord gave the assurance that he would be with Him in paradise after his death [he did die that day, even before our Lord did, you know], it has already been said by another that because the thief died before the new covenant became effective, then his repentance and confession of Christ as the Savior was sufficient for his salvation.
Two things of note here: 1.) Under the terms of the Old Covenant the repentant person was required to confess his sins while offering a lamb without spot or blemish upon the altar, and 2.) without the giving of blood there was no remission of sins.
In the thief's case he had the required Lamb there on the altar with him, and he did repent, therefore Jesus was compelled to accept and acknowledge his repentance, thereby remitting his sins. [Remember - the thief died before Jesus' death, albeit His blood had already been spilt upon the cross, which served as the thief's (and our) altar.] Because the Holy Ghost was not given until after Christ Jesus was glorified, then the terms of the Old Covenant were still in effect when the thief repented and died.
It has also been mentioned that James' statements concerning one who is sick, that they are to call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord: and the prayer of faith shall save the sick, and the Lord shall raise him up; and if he hath committed sins, they shall be forgiven him. This, of course, is all truth!
However, one must note that James was writing these things to Christians, and not to sinners, therefore the instructions which he gave regarding what a Christian is to do should they be sick, simply cannot and does not apply to sinners! [Read
James 1:1-2)
Lastly, we find it written in
Psalm 145:17 that
"The Lord is righteous in all his ways, and holy in all his works." Simply stated, this means that God is not a respector of persons, and what He does for one then He is compelled to do the same for all others. Accordingly, seeing that the means of salvation since the birth of the New Testament church in
Acts 2, then repentance, baptism by immersion in water in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the baptism of the Holy Ghost as evidence by speaking in other tongues as the Spirit gives the utterance is that which everyone must do, without exception whatsoever!
In aknowlodging the truth that ALL are required to take heed to and obey
Acts 2:38, then would it not be an unrighteous thing for God to grant etenal salvation to one who only repents (the matter of when this occurs, upon a death bed or elsewhere should have NO bearing)? Of course! But remember, He is righteous in ALL his ways!
If the repentant one presents his case to Jesus at judgment, using the excuse that he could not be baptized or receive the Holy Ghost because of the circumstances at the moment of his death, then how could Jesus, in accordance with righteousness, grant an exemption when that person had lots of opportunity to do these requirements BEFORE he ever came to his death bed?
That's not being harsh.... simply stating it the way which the Bible states it!