1st/21st Century Contexts & Applications for...

[votivesoul]

I am wondering about what it would have meant for 1st century believers to be exhorted to be "blameless" and likewise, what "blameless" would mean and indicate for believers today. Are there any universal applications of the word? How about cultural and/or temporal applications from the 1st century that have no bearing on today's believer?

Two specific verses I have in mind:

Philippians 2:15 (KJV)

15. That ye may be blameless and harmless, the sons of God, without rebuke, in the midst of a crooked and perverse nation, among whom ye shine as lights in the world...

1 Thessalonians 5:23 (KJV)

23. And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

And then, even more specifically, what was and is the context and application behind "blameless" for bishops, both then and now, as seen here:

1 Timothy 3:2 (KJV)

2. A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach...

Titus 1:7 (KJV)

7. For a bishop must be blameless, as the steward of God; not self-willed, not soon angry, not given to wine, no striker, not given to filthy lucre...

[Michael The Disciple]

It would mean to be without blame. No sin in the life.

[Michael The Disciple]

This is without doubt the easiest doctrine to prove in the Bible. After all what Bible author EVER said you CAN have blame with God in your life and its ok!