Why Acts 2:38?

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

All my post is asking is why did Peter answer those who consciences were pricked with the words of Acts 2:28? If the sinner's prayer is confusing you, then forget about it. All I want to know is why did Peter tell them to Repent, be baptized, and receive the Holy Spirit?

He didn't. Can you spot your mistake here?

Originally Posted by mizpeh

Was it a one time fluke-type thing and he preached other things to other groups of people?

Why did Peter chose those words? Was he obeying what Christ told him to do before his ascension? Was he inspired by the Holy Spirit when he said those words? If those words weren't for all people of all time, then why did he say them?

You brought up "the sinner's prayer" - and it doesn't confuse me. You're simply confused by your own misapprehension of the thing.

When spoken from the heart, these words represent a sincere prayer of repentance. Peter himself may have even included exhortations to people to say or emulate similar thoughts and words.

Your attempt to belittle others with your "Borat Approved" method of "praying" is really the issue. What is it about this "sinner's prayer" that makes think it doesn't represent real repentance when it is prayed in faith?

And just what more do you think is needed to save the lost than Jesus Christ Himself?

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by RevDWW

Nothing wrong with a sincere person praying. But just repeating a prayer is not always indicative of sincerity, as exampled by Borat........

What part of the following did you miss? These are the first words on the page that Mizzie linked to:

"The sinner's prayer is a prayer a person prays to God when they understand that they are a sinner and in need of a Savior. Saying a sinner's prayer will not accomplish anything on its own. A true sinner's prayer only represents what a person knows, understands, and believes about their sinfulness and need for salvation."

What part of that is misleading? Or did you just sound off without reading the link?

[RevDWW]

Originally Posted by pelathais

And just what more do you think is needed to save the lost than Jesus Christ Himself?

Obedience to His commandments?

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

And what do you suppose Peter would have told them to do in order to save themselves from this crooked generation? The same thing he told the others to do in Acts 2:38?

Uhm... the "others" in Acts 2:38, are the same individuals that Peter is speaking to in Acts 2:40. Same preacher. Same crowd.

Are you following along in Acts 2?

[RevDWW]

Originally Posted by pelathais

What part of the following did you miss? These are the first words on the page that Mizzie linked to:

"The sinner's prayer is a prayer a person prays to God when they understand that they are a sinner and in need of a Savior. Saying a sinner's prayer will not accomplish anything on its own. A true sinner's prayer only represents what a person knows, understands, and believes about their sinfulness and need for salvation."

What part of that is misleading? Or did you just sound off without reading the link?

I never said anything was misleading......

[Phil Stearns]

Originally Posted by pelathais

What was included in the act of "repentance?" Wouldn't the "Sinner's Prayer" or words to that effect appear there?

I suppose I should ask you, Why don't you believe that Jesus Christ is the Savior? Your post appears to be saying that someone or something else is needed in addition to Jesus Christ.

Speculation and misdirection.

[*AQuietPlace*]

The Bible says to 'confess with your mouth'. I wonder if that's why 'The Sinner's Prayer' was crafted.

[Sherri]

Originally Posted by *AQuietPlace*

The Bible says to 'confess with your mouth'. I wonder if that's why 'The Sinner's Prayer' was crafted.

I think it was crafted to help those who are sinners and don't have a clue how to pray to a living God. It's effective if the person repeating it is sincere in his heart. But the prayer alone won't save anyone, if they don't genuinely repent.

I have seen people weep as they repeated a sinner's prayer. Some people really DO repent this way.

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by pelathais

He didn't. Can you spot your mistake here?

I don't know what you are talking about, Pel?

You brought up "the sinner's prayer" - and it doesn't confuse me. You're simply confused by your own misapprehension of the thing.

I reworded my statement in the original post. I didn't think the sinner's prayer would confuse you. I want to know why Peter chose the exact words he chose in Acts 2:38 in response to the men who asked "What shall we do?" Peter could have told them to recite the sinner's prayer or something like it but he didn't. Why did he chose to answer them the way he did?

When spoken from the heart, these words represent a sincere prayer of repentance.

I agree but Peter didn't say those words.

Peter himself may have even included exhortations to people to say or emulate similar thoughts and words.

Did Peter use those words anywhere else in books he wrote?

Your attempt to belittle others with your "Borat Approved" method of "praying" is really the issue. What is it about this "sinner's prayer" that makes think it doesn't represent real repentance when it is prayed in faith?

Pel, my post was not about the sinner's prayer. It is truly about me wondering why Peter chose the exact words he did in Acts 2:38 instead of some other words. I used the sinner's prayer as an example of "other words". I have no idea what the "Borat approved method" you are talking about is!

And just what more do you think is needed to save the lost than Jesus Christ Himself?

Jesus' death on the cross is all that is needed to atone for our sins but appropriating the gift (righteousness) is more than just believing that Christ died on the cross for our sins, at least that is what I hear Peter saying to these men on the day of Pentecost who asked what they should do and he told them to repent, be baptized, and receive the Holy Spirit.

[Jason B]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

Why did Peter respond to those men whose hearts were pricked when they were told that they crucified the Christ? When the men asked him what must we do? Why did Peter tell them what he told them as recorded in Acts 2:38?

36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Why not tell them the things some are told every Sunday, like this one,

"God, I know that I am a sinner. I know that I deserve the consequences of my sin. However, I am trusting in Jesus Christ as my Savior. I believe that His death and resurrection provided for my forgiveness. I trust in Jesus and Jesus alone as my personal Lord and Savior. Thank you Lord, for saving me and forgiving me! Amen!" http://www.gotquestions.org/sinners-prayer.html

Why did Peter tell them to repent, be baptized, and receive the gift of the Holy Spirit instead of having them recite the sinner's prayer or something like it?

The problem is NOT Acts 2:38. Acts 2:38 is a legetimate call to repentance and instruction of the action should IMMEDIATELY follow repentance, namely water baptism. The point of reception of the Holy Ghost in this verse can be debated. As some think it happens afters steps one and two (hence the name three steppers) while others don't see this as a three-fold formula, but rather than the promise of the Spirit is given to those who obey Peter's command (namely to repent AND be baptized). I would say, that in the context all 3,000 that repented at Peters preaching followed that repentance with water baptism. However if we attempt to force tongues into their response (see Acts 2:41) that is indeed a stretch, which at the very best is an assumption based on Acts 2:1-4, but not necessarily supported by the text. However, I digress........

Back to what I wanted to say....the problem is NOT Acts 2:38 it is our interpretation of it, which seeks to force tongues into the passage. There is nothing wrong with using the words of Peter to appeal to sinners who need salvation, but Acts 2:38 doesn't contradict other passages where direct appeals are made to those who are in need of salvation. Furthermore if someone is willing to assume that the 3,000 DID all speak with tongues (about which the passage is silent) are they (you) also willing to make the same claim about the 5,000 in Acts 4? Furthermore, the results spoken of in Acts 4:4 don't seem to be very popular preaching material:

"Howbeit many of them which heard the word believed ; and the number of the men was about five thousand."-Acts 4:4


Acts 2:38 contains only TWO commands/instructions to the hearers, the third "command" is not a command or instruction to obey at all, but is a gift from God. These commands are things that we can actually do within our own power of choice, or reject to do, namely 1)repent and 2)be baptized.

see my thoughts on Acts 2:38 tow-fold rather than three-fold here: http://apostolicfriendsforum.com/showthread.php?t=28567

It is beyond our power and ability to receive the Holy Ghost, only God can give it. As for those who defend the doctrine of "seeking" what say ye about
Luke 11:11-13?

"If a son shall ask bread of any of you that is a father, will he give him a stone? or if [he ask] a fish, will he for a fish give him a serpent? Or if he shall ask an egg, will he offer him a scorpion? If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?"

I guess the bigger question is, can we prove that God DOESN'T give the Holy Spirit to the truly repentant sinner?