Divorce and remarriage

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by james34

I understand if it’s uncomfortable for you to talk about it.

You said, or implied that gluttony was a violation of the law. I asked for scripture to verify. You did not give any.

So is gluttony a violation of the law?

And, what parts of the law do you believe we should follow?

Bonus question: is gambling a sin? If you think it is, please provide the scripture quoting the ordinance.

I’ll wait.

[Nicodemus1968]

Originally Posted by james34

Why don’t you just say it, yes or no. Does fornication consummate marriage?

Because sometimes its better to keep the discussion going.

[Nicodemus1968]

Originally Posted by james34

Why don’t you just say it, yes or no. Does fornication consummate marriage?

John 4:16-18
[16] Jesus saith unto her, Go, call thy husband, and come hither.
[17] The woman answered and said, I have no husband. Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband:
[18] For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband: in that saidst thou truly.

I bring this up, only for conversation, I’m not writing this in connection to my belief.

First off, Jesus told the women to go and call her husband. Why? Because it was the husbands job to teach his wife, and home.

Second, we have a women stating that she has NO husbands. Yet, Jesus called her condition out in the open, and told her she had 5 husbands. And the man she is currently with is not her husband.

What scenarios can we have with this situation?
1- All 5 husbands are deceased
2- The man she is with has a spouse that is currently living.
3- There in Adultery
4- One of her former husbands are alive.

What if not all the husbands are dead, I mean it can happen, yet, that’s highly unlikely. What if only two are dead, that means she would’ve been in either adultery or fornication and Jesus called them husbands. Does God recognize a marriage that has a women being married to two different men at the same time?

Either thats what happen with the women at the well, or Jesus called a couple of those men husbands to her, which would make it adultery.

What do you think James34?

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by Nicodemus1968

John 4:16-18
[16] Jesus saith unto her, Go, call thy husband, and come hither.
[17] The woman answered and said, I have no husband. Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband:
[18] For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband: in that saidst thou truly.

I bring this up, only for conversation, I’m not writing this in connection to my belief.

First off, Jesus told the women to go and call her husband. Why? Because it was the husbands job to teach his wife, and home.

Second, we have a women stating that she has NO husbands. Yet, Jesus called her condition out in the open, and told her she had 5 husbands. And the man she is currently with is not her husband.

What scenarios can we have with this situation?
1- All 5 husbands are deceased
2- The man she is with has a spouse that is currently living.
3- There in Adultery
4- One of her former husbands are alive.

What if not all the husbands are dead, I mean it can happen, yet, that’s highly unlikely. What if only two are dead, that means she would’ve been in either adultery or fornication and Jesus called them husbands. Does God recognize a marriage that has a women being married to two different men at the same time?

Either thats what happen with the women at the well, or Jesus called a couple of those men husbands to her, which would make it adultery.

What do you think James34?

Don’t ask him any more questions until he answers mine. We don’t want to overwhelm him.

[james34]

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

Don’t ask him any more questions until he answers mine. We don’t want to overwhelm him.

Y’all better read above and see who is dodging and who is answering!!!!

So no I won’t answer any more until I see some conversational integrity from those with opposing views.

My posts on this subject will be to those who seek truth, who are looking for another perspective on the subject.

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by james34

Y’all better read above and see who is dodging and who is answering!!!!

So no I won’t answer any more until I see some conversational integrity from those with opposing views.

My posts on this subject will be to those who seek truth, who are looking for another perspective on the subject.

Okay. I’ve read the above, and the one who is dodging questions is . . .





james34

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by james34

Y’all better read above and see who is dodging and who is answering!!!!

So no I won’t answer any more until I see some conversational integrity from those with opposing views.

My posts on this subject will be to those who seek truth, who are looking for another perspective on the subject.

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

I’m not aware of the law saying that gluttony is a sin. Could you provide scripture for that?

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

This is verse 6, so it is prior to verse seven, and entirely relevant.

6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.

So tell me Brother. How much of the law do you think we are under. You are sounding pretty legalistic. It’s funny how Paul is speaking in the past tense but you didn’t seem to notice. Are you sacrificing animals?

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

Does this mean you can’t find a law against gluttony?

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

You said, or implied that gluttony was a violation of the law. I asked for scripture to verify. You did not give any.

So is gluttony a violation of the law?

And, what parts of the law do you believe we should follow?

Bonus question: is gambling a sin? If you think it is, please provide the scripture quoting the ordinance.

I’ll wait.

I understand if you’re not comfortable answering questions.

Maybe you don’t know the answers?

Or maybe you don’t like the answers you know.

[Tithesmeister]

Don’t be upset with me Brother. The I’m just having fun.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by james34

Bump

Yes, the law identifies what is sin. And therefore it also identifies what is not sin.

The law did not identify remarriage after divorce as sin, except in a few specific cases.

It did identify as sin the marrying of a woman who was simply put away but not given a writ of divorce.

[Esaias]

If a man cheats on his wife, committing adultery, and they divorce, is he free to remarry?