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Originally Posted by Esaias
I am pointing out that your argumentation leads to conclusions nobody - including you - accept, therefore your argumentation is wrong. An argument that proves too much proves nothing. You still have not identified the verse that teaches "only 9 of the ten commandments are still valid".
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I never said only 9 commandments are still valid. And even though I just said that you are again pointing to the unwritten idea that if any commandments are for today, then all are for today in the way they were kept then, to which you just made this response I am answering now!
Who said one of the commandments cannot be a shadow that will be engaged in with the greater body of understanding and experience, with the others not in that category? So, being a shadow of something, and listed as a shadow in the Ten, and fulfilled by experiencing what the shadow pointed to, is not the same as simply saying 9 out of ten are valid. They're all valid but we keep the fourth in the manner of experiencing the antitype not its shadowy form.
You write as though Paul never said all sabbaths were a shadow and ought not be judging issues due to the handwriting of ordinances that were removed, and that has no bearing on the issue of the fourth commandment. Sabbaths in
Col. 2 is plural meaning ALL OF THEM. BAR NONE. But you either do not think that is the case, since you never made that clear, or take the intention of Paull's reference to judging and make it something totally unintended by changing what handwriting of ordinances actually refers to.
Your manner, more overtly than that, changes definitions of words in other cases where context uses a term more than once, with one instance distinctly referring to law (as in
Gal 4:3 with elements of the world distinctly referring to law illustrated by the tutors in verse 2 that answers to the law as a schoolmaster in chapter 3), and another instance only verses later also referring to law (as in
Gal 4:9 where ELEMENTS OF THE WORD are this time changed to refer to idolatry in your mind due to verse 8's SIDE-LINE REFERENCE that was never the subject of the entire context from chapter 3 through 4). Good bro. Votivesoul felt verse 3 refers to law but not verse 9, whereas I answered saying the bondage noted in verse 9 corresponds to the bondage noted in verse 24 which is distinctly said to come from the old covenant. So, you may never have stated that verse 3 is law, which it is anyway. But, nevertheless, all of this proves you do not follow context and derive your beliefs from context, but rather from a seventh-day adventist-type rule of thumb that teaches no single passage can in any way speak against sabbath keeping on the seventh day so you have to force a text to say what you believe rather than allow that text to teach you what to believe. See my signature. If there is anything that my signature applies to it is your distinct manner of looking for sabbath in a chapter and refusing to see it in other chapters that speak against the shadow purpose of it, or to at least diminish the shadowy purpose to still allow for it today. It's like sabbath is the key issue to which you will always respond when you will leave other issues alone and not bother to answer all objections.
I said there are nine things that continue from the commandments into the new covenant, which is a big difference. The fourth is valid but has changed natures just as the city of Jerusalem that you do not attend on three feasts is not your destination but was a shadow of the New Jerusalem in Spirit.
You never responded to my note about
Gal 4 where we do not read of idolatry in the form of an antecedent BEFORE
Gal 4:3 uses reference to elements of the world, for us to think that elements fo the world refers to idolatry. You never responded to that whole post of the purpose of antecedents, which makes it impossible to think of
Gal 4:3 as idolatry.
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Wrong. I have always stated these things are done in a NEW COVENANT CHRIST-CENTERED CONTEXT.
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And THAT is what I am saying about sabbath day! Exact same thing. Sabbath is a shadow of Christ as much as the meat and drink offerings. Are you trying to say that sabbaths being shadow fo the body of Christ is not showing the "body of Christ" to be Christocentric?????? That is more plain than the New Jerusalem issue, because Sabbaths were distinctly said to be shadows of the body of Christ. Now, don't go back to the error you previously admitted to believing by saying the body of Christ refers to the church being able to judge when those outside cannot. You already conceded that was error. And when you said I was in error, too, not allowing yourself to be in error alone, you said it was shadow of the priesthood, which I agreed with and always believed, showing I was not in error. ANd that priesthood is in effect NOW, hence no need for the shadow.
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You are now taking the position of the Pharisees in claiming Christian obedience to the commandments of God is INCORRECT AND INSUFFICIENT because adherence to the OLD COVENANT METHODOLOGY is not being followed. Hebrews EXPLICITLY STATES the law of sacrifice and offerings, priesthood, etc has been CHANGED.
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Hebrews says explicitly that LAW HAS CHANGED, You limit the reference to law to be something less than the overall gamut. Scholars abound who agree with me, in case there is the implication from you that this concept is not known.
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Your theology is somewhat underdeveloped because you do not understand the difference between ADMINISTRATIONS nor do you have any clearly defined understanding of the multiple uses of the generic word "law" as used in Scripture.
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In places where you claim that the LAW refers to the twisted distorted version of pharisees , I have repeatedly shown that is not the case as in
Gal 3's reference to
Lev. 18:5.
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You also assert the Sabbath "is distinctly called a shadow" but that is not actually the case. Even if it was (t's not) your line of reasoning would do away with at least the Lord's Supper and at most all eating and drinking whatsoever. So once again, your position is seriously flawed.
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All sabbaths are distinctly called a shadow of Christ. You even realized you were in error about COl 2 and what the body of Christ meant, but you still will not let go of the plain context that says they're fulfilled in the body now. And Paul stated that we can have no man judge us over those things because the handwriting contained in ordinances was blotted out, being against us and contrary to us, which is the same thing that the partition wall of commandments contained in ordinances was said to be removed because it was against us keeping us away from where God was working. You incorrectly ASSUME that handwriting of ordinances does not refer to the Law, despite the fact that law of Moses is filled with ordinances, and the blotting out was a reference to the case of the adulterous the rotting thigh issue under law where blotting-out was involved.
You add to he word and that say the reference to Moses law and circumcision included distorted rabbinical traditions in the book of Acts when the text only speaks of Moses' law, and take plain references that Moses law could not be borne by the apostles, or their fathers who were under Law, and add to the word again and say it's not Mosaic Law.
So, when you state I do not cover all varying uses of the word LAW in the New Testament, I claim that your uses are additions to the Word and not meant to be considered at all in the instances you refer to like
Gal 3 and
Acts 15.
Also, you never responded to my notes showing that the service to God using letter of the law was the walking after the flesh that Paul spoke about from
Romans 7 through 8, but merely stated you disagree with my thoughts on that. After you said you disagree, I then laid out the context from
Romans 7:6 through 8:1 to prove my concept is correct. I hope you do not make me go and look for it again, but look for yourself earlier in this thread.
I really do respect you, but I repeat that this issue is one in which you are way off and have totally missed the context of the references I have just made in this post.
The glaring fault in your claim that I am inconsistent because I do not do away with the Lord's supper and foot washing is your absence of awareness that these things were not commandments in the Old Covenant and claimed to be shadows that ought not be kept in the shadowy form today. Paul never rebuked people for keeping Lord's supper like he did holy days, months and years from law, which you cannot accept because you change the meaning of
Gal 4's reference.
Love you bro, but you are extremely weak in the faith in this aspect.