Seconds of Pre Embryonic Life of Jesus Christ?

[Walks_in_islam]

Originally Posted by Sean

GS, God was revealed as flesh or God was revealed inside Jesus' flesh?

The overall teaching of Jesus seems to imply that God / God's word was revealed through Jesus with power given to Jesus to do God's work?

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Walks_in_islam

The overall teaching of Jesus seems to imply that God / God's word was revealed through Jesus with power given to Jesus to do God's work?

Exactly.

Jesus was an individual(last Adam), that was Holy Ghost filled/led per Luke 4:1.

Our Adam died and was resurrected by his God and then the Col 2:9 effect on him made him a quickening spirit(or AKA, God).

Modern trinity Christendom invented the "2 nature" idea and oneness modified it 100 or more years ago.

Jesus was not an incarnation of God, but a Spirit filled begotten son of God.

Jesus became God via the Col 2:9 effect on him upon his resurrection.

[Sean]

If "God" died for our sins, and not another Adam, then God is showing a sign of guilt for "creating sinners", and trying to fix His mistake.

Fact is, one Adam introduced sin, another Adam introduced salvation by dying without sinning(assisted by the Holy Ghost).

Jesus was a redo of our sinful father, Adam #1.

Known from the foundation of the world, God's first son, Adam, was a failure, but God's only begotten son, "Adam", was a success.

[Sean]

H/U teachers could not comprehend this fact by the time of the 5th century, thus changed the word of God into this....




Hypostatic union (from the Greek: ὑπόστασις hypóstasis, "sediment, foundation, substance, subsistence") is a technical term in Christian theology employed in mainstream Christology to describe the union of Christ's humanity and divinity in one hypostasis, or individual existence.[3]

The most basic explanation for the hypostatic union is Jesus Christ being both God, and man. It is both his divinity and his humanity.

The First Council of Ephesus in 431 AD recognized this doctrine and affirmed its importance, stating that the humanity and divinity of Christ are made one according to nature and hypostasis in the Logos.




....meaning, God took on humanity, robbing Jesus of his individuality.

[Walks_in_islam]

Originally Posted by Sean

Exactly.

Jesus was an individual(last Adam), that was Holy Ghost filled/led per Luke 4:1.

Our Adam died and was resurrected by his God and then the Col 2:9 effect on him made him a quickening spirit(or AKA, God).

Modern trinity Christendom invented the "2 nature" idea and oneness modified it 100 or more years ago.

Jesus was not an incarnation of God, but a Spirit filled begotten son of God.

Jesus became God via the Col 2:9 effect on him upon his resurrection.

8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.

9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

It says here Jesus is the head of all principality and power. That is consistent with "Right Hand" sprinkled through the New and Old Testament verses that refer to Jesus - but definitely consistent with "given power" referred to by Jesus himself.

Then says right after that - Jesus who God raised from the dead. How then did he become God (and also) continue to either share or stand or sit (what a silly discussion, right? sorry about that) at God's right hand but not OWN the place of God all the way through Revelations?

[Sean]

It all started here.....



23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.



For this to be accomplished, Jesus had to be made into this.....



45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.

46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.

47 The first man is of the earth, earthy; the second man is the Lord from heaven.



He had to die to be made the Lord from heaven(a quickening spirit).



This caused the Col 2:9 effect on his glorified body to be do-able, because Jesus, the quickening spirit was made omnipresent, via, the full indwelling, bodily.



But, Jesus still has a God now......


12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.




And Jesus is still an individual, glorified, omnipresent man now....



5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;





So, Jesus has his individuality still, while being fully indwelled bodily by all of what God consists of.



This is why Jesus is seen as the express image of the INVISIBLE God inside Him...



19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

[Sean]

22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

23 Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.

24 Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye also shall continue in the Son, and in the Father.



Does this mean the Father and the son are the exact same person?

I think not, but this, and all the other verses teach 2...One Divine and one GLORIFIED human with a God.



My fear is to be a DENIER of this, and being called a lying antichrist, etc.



Am I going to appeal to David Bernard when I stand before God for my teaching, or the Bible?

If the Father/son are the exact same person and I am wrong, then I will ask the Lord to review the scripture and He must reference modern oneness commentary and 5th century Catholicism to accuse me of false teaching.


But, if I am right with the 2 person idea, I cannot be accused of being a lying antichrist, but my brethren will be in peril.

[Walks_in_islam]

Originally Posted by Sean

22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

23 Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.

24 Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye also shall continue in the Son, and in the Father.


Does this mean the Father and the son are the exact same person?

I think not, but this, and all the other verses teach 2...One Divine and one GLORIFIED human with a God.

My fear is to be a DENIER of this, and being called a lying antichrist, etc.

Am I going to appeal to David Bernard when I stand before God for my teaching, or the Bible?

If the Father/son are the exact same person and I am wrong, then I will ask the Lord to review the scripture and He must reference modern oneness commentary and 5th century Catholicism to accuse me of false teaching.

But, if I am right with the 2 person idea, I cannot be accused of being a lying antichrist, but my brethren will be in peril.

All of the verses seem to teach 2

I have already been branded an antichrist. Branding from those who teach television is a sin but bring the internet into their homes is as contradictory as their words that twist these and many other identical verses into meaning something they do not say.

[Sean]

The real antichrist's seem to be those that deny BOTH the Father AND THE son.


That is JOHN calling folks lying antichrists.

I would seriously consider that, if I taught the Father IS THE son.(just in case)

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Walks_in_islam

All of the verses seem to teach 2

I have already been branded an antichrist. Branding from those who teach television is a sin but bring the internet into their homes is as contradictory as their words that twist these and many other identical verses into meaning something they do not say.

Titus 2:13 calls Jesus our God and Saviour.

2 Peter 1:1 calls Jesus our God and Saviour.

Romans 14:10-12 says we must appear before the judgment seat of Christ BECAUSE "it is written" that every knee will bow to YHVH and every tongue will confess to God, and "so then" everybody will give account of themselves to God. Thus, Christ and God and YHVH are being used interchangeably.

John 1:1 says the Logos was God, and v 14 says the Logos was made flesh and dwelt among us, and that we (the apostles, that is) beheld His glory, the glory AS OF the only-begotten of the Father.

1 Timothy 3:16 says the great mystery of piety is that God was manifest in the flesh, etc.

Acts 20:28 says the church was purchased with God's blood.

Revelation 1 speaks of Jesus as the first and last, alpha and omega, beginning and ending, and the Almighty. First and last is a Hebraism referring to YHVH (Isaiah 44:6 and Isaiah 48:12).

There are more, of course, but the point is the Bible speaks of Jesus as a man, the son of David, the Son of God, the mediator between God and men, the High Priest, one who received power and glory from God, etc., AS WELL AS speaking of Jesus as God, YHVH/Jehovah, the Lord (in the Old Testament sense), etc.

The Bible speaks of God being manifested in the flesh, the Logos/Word/Dabar of Jehovah being made flesh, of Christ being the visible image of the invisible God, the brightness of God's glory, the express image of God's person (engraving of God's substance, being, hupostasis), the one in whom all the fulness of the deity dwells bodily, etc.

So, yes, there is distinction: man and God, Son and Father, Priest and Deity, etc. But there is also unity, the two are referred to as if they were one being. So, we accept both classes of statements as true: Jesus is a man, the Son of God, etc. Yet, He is also God, the Almighty. We accept that the Bible teaches God revealed or manifested Himself in the flesh, as Jesus Christ.

As for explaining the mechanical details of that which the Bible calls a "great mystery", we probably ought to be careful trying to explain things beyond the Biblical data, otherwise we may wind up saying things the Bible never said or intended.