Hi, Fellas
Try reading it now, the fixed version with the footnotes in place and see if that answers your concerns. If not, then I will try to address them when I can.
Do note, however, that I said the translation was misleading, not flat out WRONG.
Until then, take a look at
1 Timothy 4:1-2 in the NIV here:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage...-2&version=NIV
Or the NRSV, here:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage...2&version=NRSV
The difference may seem subtle, between these two (for example) and how the KJV reads, but it's there. And, I might add, the NIV and NRSV more accurately reflect the meaning of the underlying Greek (moreso than the KJV does in this passage).