Angels reproducing with humans possible?

[Praxeas]

sn The Hebrew phrase translated “sons of God” (בְנֵי־הָאֱלֹהִים, béne-ha’elohim) occurs only here (Gen 6:2, 4) and in Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. There are three major interpretations of the phrase here. (1) In the Book of Job the phrase clearly refers to angelic beings. In Gen 6 the “sons of God” are distinct from “humankind,” suggesting they were not human. This is consistent with the use of the phrase in Job. Since the passage speaks of these beings cohabiting with women, they must have taken physical form or possessed the bodies of men. An early Jewish tradition preserved in 1 En. 6–7 elaborates on this angelic revolt and even names the ringleaders. (2) Not all scholars accept the angelic interpretation of the “sons of God,” however. Some argue that the “sons of God” were members of Seth’s line, traced back to God through Adam in Gen 5, while the “daughters of humankind” were descendants of Cain. But, as noted above, the text distinguishes the “sons of God” from humankind (which would include the Sethites as well as the Cainites) and suggests that the “daughters of humankind” are human women in general, not just Cainites. (3) Others identify the “sons of God” as powerful tyrants, perhaps demon-possessed, who viewed themselves as divine and, following the example of Lamech (see Gen 4:19), practiced polygamy. But usage of the phrase “sons of God” in Job militates against this view. For literature on the subject see G. J. Wenham, Genesis (WBC), 1:135.

[Lafon]

I have a question regarding the premise that angels (whether they be fallen or not) actually "fathered" children by women (a human being), and it is this:

Would such children still be subjected to death? If so, then how is it that you and I, the descendants of Adam "inherited" this penalty by way of the "seed" of his body which became corrupt when God imposed this penalty upon it, whereas there's nothing in the scriptural record which states children "allegedly" born of angels (as their progenitors) would not bear such a judgment?

I haven't seen any 6,000 year old humans anywhere lately, unless they conceal their age better than I know how to do. Have anyone, ever?

[thephnxman]

Originally Posted by Lafon

I have a question regarding the premise that angels (whether they be fallen or not) actually "fathered" children by women (a human being), and it is this:
Would such children still be subjected to death? If so, then how is it that you and I, the descendants of Adam "inherited" this penalty by way of the "seed" of his body which became corrupt when God imposed this penalty upon it, whereas there's nothing in the scriptural record which states children "allegedly" born of angels (as their progenitors) would not bear such a judgment?
I haven't seen any 6,000 year old humans anywhere lately, unless they conceal their age better than I know how to do. Have anyone, ever?

Do you mean, "If not..." right; that is, did not inherit death? (Actually, we inherited the trait of sin;and sin, once conceived, brought forth death)

Angels that committed iniquity with Lucifer do not "inherit" death: they have no bodies of flesh and bones. Neither were they
subject to death, until the death of Jesus Christ, at which time Satan and his cohorts became murderers.
Then, and only then, did they become subject to the Law of Sin and Death!

[Lafon]

Originally Posted by thephnxman

Do you mean, "If not..." right; that is, did not inherit death? (Actually, we inherited the trait of sin;and sin, once conceived, brought forth death)

Angels that committed iniquity with Lucifer do not "inherit" death: they have no bodies of flesh and bones. Neither were they
subject to death, until the death of Jesus Christ, at which time Satan and his cohorts became murderers.
Then, and only then, did they become subject to the Law of Sin and Death!

Yes, my bad, I should have said "if not." Thanks for the correction!

I'm not as confident though in the merits of your explanation, for it is my opinion that the penalty of death unto Lucifier and his rebellious band of angels did NOT differ in ANY manner from its effect upon mankind. Psalm 145:17 advises that God, in His righteousness, does NOT, and indeed, could NOT have two different ways of administering justice, one for mankind and another for the angels, for He is holy in ALL of His works.

The question being here though, Did angels, fallen or not, become the Father of children born of women? Seeing that death for mankind came by way of the corrupt seed of Adam (see I Corinthians 15:21), and, as "alleged" angels also fathered children, then my question is focused upon how such off-spring inherited the penalty of death, or else we should see some really "old" men and women resident upon the earth, not to even mention that IF such were true, then they would NOT stand in need of a Savior, for they will never die.

Do you have any answers? If so, I would appreciate your providing a scripture passage or two to validate them, rather than your non-scripturally supported statements as noted in your response.

My warmest regards are extended, and I thank you in advance of your response!

[mfblume]

I know we chat about anything here on the forum, but what is someone's reason for why this topic is such an issue with some?

[Lafon]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I know we chat about anything here on the forum, but what is someone's reason for why this topic is such an issue with some?

Mike, Methinks it is rather comical, actually. Not to mention completely out of the realm of common logic and reasoning! Angels procreating themselves through the insemination of human women? Half-breeds, that's what they would be. Although I've encountered SOME whom I've suspected that they might "have a little bit of the devil in them"! LOL

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Lafon

I have a question regarding the premise that angels (whether they be fallen or not) actually "fathered" children by women (a human being), and it is this:

Would such children still be subjected to death? If so, then how is it that you and I, the descendants of Adam "inherited" this penalty by way of the "seed" of his body which became corrupt when God imposed this penalty upon it, whereas there's nothing in the scriptural record which states children "allegedly" born of angels (as their progenitors) would not bear such a judgment?

I haven't seen any 6,000 year old humans anywhere lately, unless they conceal their age better than I know how to do. Have anyone, ever?

I don't see any reason to believe they are still alive but if they are, perhaps like these fallen angels they are reserved for every lasting punishment

Death was not simply physical death, but endless death (the second death)

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I know we chat about anything here on the forum, but what is someone's reason for why this topic is such an issue with some?

You go first

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Lafon

Mike, Methinks it is rather comical, actually. Not to mention completely out of the realm of common logic and reasoning! Angels procreating themselves through the insemination of human women? Half-breeds, that's what they would be. Although I've encountered SOME whom I've suspected that they might "have a little bit of the devil in them"! LOL

Lol. I'm on your side.

[Michael The Disciple]

Its an issue because the scriptures teach it. Historians from ancient times believed it. It seems the shockingness of it repels the modern day Bible reader.