End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Many preachers quote one verse and then never really mention it again but give anecdotal evidences.


I see, so now we have to count how many verses they "quote" before we can place a label on what they're doing ?




Ive even heard some who read no verses at all.

Then they are not "preaching the Word" now are they?




BTW, regarding church polity, Paul commanded Timothy to "Preach the Word; be prepared in season and out of season; correct, rebuke and encourage--with great patience and careful instruction."


This shows that "preaching" in indeed done to church-members - & not just preaching the gospel to the lost (as you erroneously feign).



Many times when Jesus spoke he did not quote verses from the OT and expound on them.

What did Jesus preach

Mat 4:17 From that time Jesus began to preach, saying, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."


First off, variables of the Hebrew verb translated “repent,” “repented,” etc. are found 46 times in the Old Testament in 45 verses. Next, the expression "kingdom of heaven (or God)" is an OT concept & is referenced many times in the same.



Hence, your example above fails inasmuch as the words Jesus employed evoked imagery of OT language & concepts (it's not like He just pulled them out of the air).

Finally, you have defined "preach" over & over as someone who preaches the gospel to the lost (i.e., Evangelist) - I am asking how in the world someone can "preach" to the lost without ever referencing the Scriptures ??

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Sasha

He misspoke anyway. Him, RJR, and Pliny all have stated that prophets are not preachers.

Straw man alert !


You're completely wrong (not unusual). We (along with the Bible) have said that prophecy is not a "sermon from the Scriptures".


- So silly.

[RJR]

Originally Posted by rdp

Straw man alert !


You're completely wrong (not unusual). We (along with the Bible) have said that prophecy is not a "sermon from the Scriptures".


- So silly.

rdp and Pliny

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Sasha

Such a shame that someone would believe that a woman having a Bible study in a couple's home would have to dismiss the man from the room as to not be teaching him.

The Bible says that Timothy was taught by his mother and grandmother. It doesn't say they stopped teaching him anything once he became an adult.

LOL - another clear misrepresentation.


I have said no saved woman has any business continuously teaching unsaved sinner men Bible studies - (read closely here): WHEN THERE ARE MANY MEN IN THE CHURCH WHO CAN DO THE SAME JOB (did ya' catch that ?).


Besides, you're mingling separate contexts again - Y'all just refuse to get the point eh' ?

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Roxanne Murphy

Good luck getting an honest answer because the only honest answer exposes the hypocrisy and the almost misogynist mindset that permeates the anti-woman preacher theology.

LOL - Poor ol' "misogynist" Apostle Paul:


Women should be silent during the church meetings. It is not proper for them to speak. They should be submissive, just as the law says.



11 A woman must quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness. 12 But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet. 13 For it was Adam who was first created, and then Eve.


Explain it away until doomsday - it'll still mean exactly what it says when you're finished tampering with it !

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Roxanne Murphy

Ultra femi nazi? Now that is funny as I am on the opposite pole from such a lifestyle. In fact, I am an old fashioned redneck girl with a very sharp mind and memory and a heritage that allows me to be submissive to my husband and fill my place in our home and marriage, while still exercising the gifts and talents that God placed in my life long before I got married. Of course, it takes a real Godly man secure in his own place in God's order to allow his wife to be truly as much a functioning member of the body of Christ and an heir together of the grace of life. But you wouldn't know anything about that.

Nahhh, I don't know anything about "God's order" of "egalitarianism" - because it doesn't exist !

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Roxanne Murphy

AMEN!

LOL - Why am I not surprised ?

[rdp]

Originally Posted by MissBrattified

Can you provide the biblical-textual basis that asserts a man must preach in order to pastor a church? Unless you're using the terms "bishop" and "pastor" interchangeably, which I don't believe scripture does, I'm not sure where you're getting that.


Paul told Timothy to "PREACH the Word to the churches he was over." How can an overseer or shepherd guide their flock without ever using the Bible ?


Respectfully, this is a very odd doctrine that you're pedaling here. How would you feel if your pastor never "preached" to the church?? Strange.




Why is Strong's a poor source, and what is a better one? I'm willing to dig deeper, but I don't think scripture needs to be taken four languages deep to be understood. Lay people should be able to read scripture with nothing else in hand and understand it. I get a little suspicious of any doctrine that requires a theology degree to explain. It feels like we're reverting back to Catholicism when you have to have "priests" explain to the ignorant laity what scripture says and what it means.


I agree, we can accept the Word of God as it's written:


I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet.




I have no reason not to. If you do accept that definition, it complements the fact that Paul deliberately used the word "teach" instead of "preach" in I Timothy 2. If he had used laleo, then a stronger case could have been made for very literal silence of women in church.

Yes, & the Greek verb "teach" is defined as "to exposit from the Scriptures" no less than 220 times in the NT. That's our whole point - women are strictly forbidden to do this in the NT church to men.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by rdp

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by rdp

Missing something there Prax.


The Greek conjunction translated "and" (δέ) above in v. 35 is functioning as an adversative particle meaning "moreover, indeed now, on top of this, or next" (http://biblehub.com/greek/1161.htm).


What this means is that Paul makes a clear restriction in v. 34 - then in v. 35 he appends another thought "on top of this" (i.e., the prohibition of v. 34).


The Greek verb most certainly can mean "to preach" - or else the KJV translators wouldn't have opted for the translation in 6 different places (& no, I am NOT a KJV-Only). A Greek professor who used to tutor me once told me that this verb can indeed mean "preach."

It's Connective

89.87 καίb; δέb: markers of a sequence of closely related events—‘and, and then.’
καίb: εἰσῆλθον ὑπὸ τὸν ὄρθρον εἰς τὸ ἱερὸν καὶ ἐδίδασκον ‘at dawn they entered the Temple and taught’ Ac 5:21.
δέb: Ἀβραὰμ ἐγέννησεν τὸν Ἰσαάκ, Ἰσαὰκ δὲ ἐγέννησεν τὸν Ἰακώβ ‘Abraham was the father of Isaac and Isaac was the father of Jacob’ Mt 1:2.


Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. (1996). Vol. 1: Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament: Based on semantic domains (electronic ed. of the 2nd edition.) (788). New York: United Bible Societies.