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Originally Posted by freeatlast
An interestring study on the word "recieved". Our one english word recieved is the word the translators use for 18 different woords in the original text's.
The Samaritans "recieved(lambano) the holy Spirit.
This word lambano gives the menaing of manifesting objectvively what one allready possesses.
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I looked up the word "receive" and "received" in the book of Acts in the verses in which it is associated with the gift of the Holy Spirit. Strong's references lambano each time and different tenses of the verb. Your definition of lambano is different from Strong's. Where did you get your definition? Where do you find 18 different words for "receive"? are they all these different words for receive in the original texts used in reference to "receiving the Holy Spirit"?
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Because the UNBELIEVNG Jews could not Believe that a Samaritan dog could be saved God "fell upon or came upon" the Samaritans and manifested a gift of the spirit thru them. The gift of tongues to convince the unbeleivers that Samaritans could be saved and have Chris within their lives.
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Why was tongues a sign to Peter and the
believing Jews that the Gentiles received the Holy Ghost?
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Remeber Paul said tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe but to them that believe not.
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Is there a difference between the initial evidence of tongues and the gift of tongues? What do you think of
Isaiah 28:11-12? What do you think of Jesus' mention of a "sound" in
John 3:8? Is it tongues?
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Tongues were a sign that someone had become a believer a " few" times in Acts. This in no way establishes that tongues will always accompany conversion.
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To be converted is to repent or turn away from sin and to turn to God.
Acts 3:19 Tongues doesn't always accompany repentance but it does accompany receiving the Spirit of God.
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There are many other places in Acts where we read of people coming to faith with no mention of tongues.
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The Bible never says the Philipian jailor and his family repented or received the Spirit. Yet we know both are necessary for salvation and commanded of God. Same with the Ethiopian eunuch in
Acts 8. Does the Bible have to spell it out to us, as in
Acts 2, every time someone is saved?
In
Acts 2 when the hearers were pricked in their hearts by believing those things Peter preached, were they saved then and there. Was
Acts 2:38 just an afterthought?