Which bible/bibles gets 1 Timothy 3:16 correct?

[Scott Pitta]

Metzger also uses this spelling example as a case study. Either way, it s a simple transmission error. One sleepy scribe made a mistake and others copied it when they copied his copy.

Easy stuff.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Never heard anyone argue godliness means godhead

me neither.

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

Metzger also uses this spelling example as a case study. Either way, it s a simple transmission error. One sleepy scribe made a mistake and others copied it when they copied his copy.

Easy stuff.

*Agreed. I have Metzger's work also. No "conspiracy" going on in this text.

*I just think the preponderance of evidence leans toward Θεός in this text.

[Scott Pitta]

That's fine with me. Most textual issues are quite complex. This one, is easy.

[bishoph]

I'm not sure what all the debating is for.......we all KNOW the KJV is RIGHT!!!! It was good for Peter James, John and Paul....so it's good nuff for me!

[votivesoul]

Here is a link to the NET Bible:

https://net.bible.org/#!bible/1+Timothy+3

See footnote 24 on the right side of the page, as it pertains to 1 Timothy 3:16.

It argues favorably and convincingly for "He".

[peter83]

There are many references from apostolic "fathers " that says GOD not HE .
ΟΣ is not HE ,is WHOM and this is not grammatical correct to put there!

[peter83]

if you want is not necessarily to learn greek (for me is easyer than english
You can read the Majority Text here:
http://www.majoritytext.com/
this is a very good translation directly from the Original greek Text to English.
for example looke this passage:

Μ.Τ 11 And I am no longer in the world, yet these are in the world, and I am coming to You. Holy Father, keep them in Your name which You have given to Me, that they may be one just as We are

KJV
11 And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we

Do you see the different "those whom" and "your name wich "?

[rdp]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

Here is a link to the NET Bible:

https://net.bible.org/#!bible/1+Timothy+3

See footnote 24 on the right side of the page, as it pertains to 1 Timothy 3:16.

It argues favorably and convincingly for "He".

*I have personally interacted w. Wallace regarding these notes on I Timothy 3.16, as well as the LEM. In all honesty, all communication ceased when I brought up the early quotations from the earliest of witnesses (e.g., Ignatius, etc.).

*Not saying Wallace did not have a response (I actually sent him word-docs on the these variants), I just find it odd that we were having daily dialogue for a while on the topic up until that point.

*Wallace & the NET TN say nothing about early quotes (far earlier than any Greek MSS we have [e.g., A, B, p66, etc.]) that affirm ΘΣ (nomina sacra for "God"), Burgon's monumental volume, etc. - all of which would overthrow their assertion regarding this variant.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by bishoph

I'm not sure what all the debating is for.......we all KNOW the KJV is RIGHT!!!! It was good for Peter James, John and Paul....so it's good nuff for me!