"Dead" merely indicates that you are using dated material. I have many of Prof. Metzger's books and keep them as treasures.
And, "So says me" on the grammar? Read Farstad's "sentence:" "Since the expression 'eis aphesin hamartion' is a prepositional phrase with no verbal endings or singular or plural endings." ...? Yes, go on...
"repentance and baptism TOGETHOR!" is just the point. The grammar blurs the distinction between "baptism" and "Repent" in
Acts 2:38. It's so blurred that we honestly can't "CLEARLY" tell if the prepositional phrase "for the remission of sins" is telling us "BE BAPTIZED BECAUSE of repentance..." or "BE BAPTIZED IN ORDER TO RECEIVE forgiveness."
It's a blur, and THAT's what Padfield's sources tell us.
You go on to make assertions here - put you offer no proof. You say:
"Baptism is clearly seen MANY times in the NT as having relationship to removal of sin."
Okay. "Two" is "a couple." "Three" is a "few." And four?
How about you give me four NT examples of the above assertion? Four would be a minimum to prove your case.
"Jesus places repentance before coming to the alter [SIC] and giving offering which fits the pattern and model of Acts 2:38 and relation of death/sacrifice of Romans 6 and others."
Matthew 5:20-25, (at least that's what I think you're referring to here) is NOT referring to a sin offering. Even the "innocent" party is commanded here to "go to thy brother and be reconciled" (See especially
Matthew 5:23-24).
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