Quote:
Originally Posted by Esaias
Can the English determine grammatically if the term God is a predicate object of "who is"? Or if it definitively is NOT and that "blessed" is definitely a predicate of the subject "God"?
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The AV follows the Greek word order.
And if you think that Paul as seen in the AV would write with a double/triple ellipsis:
(he is) God (who is) blessed for ever (by creation, his people, Paul or whomever)
You could have God as a predicate object of the earlier "who is" in apposition to Christ.
To me, that is a very unnatural understanding.
If the goal was to say Christ is God, there are far simpler ways than in questionable grammatical extrapolation subtleties!
We do better at times just to get the "feel" of the English.
Grammarians not fluent in a language can often get themselves twisted in knots by their categories.
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Vasileios Tsialas from Athens, in a note:
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"Grammar books do not make language; it is language that makes grammar books. In other words, language existed long before grammar books came into existence. So language is a natural phenomenon that cannot be enclosed in a technical enchiridion."
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It is very difficult to try to have your cake and eat it too, saying God is doing grammatical double-duty. Looking backward to Christ in a direct apposition and simultaneously connected harmoniously with blessed in a natural association phrase. If that were actually the goal, then the elliptical words should be included. If the learned men of the AV thought that the words were implied, they would have put them in italics (or whatever was used in 1611).
Romans 9:5 (AV)
Whose are the fathers,
and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came,
who is over all,
God blessed for ever.
Amen.
Steven Avery 
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