Historical References Regarding 1st Cent. Baptism

[Rudy]

Originally Posted by UnTraditional

May I ask this question, and please note that I am not seeking to be contentious or abrasive. You all know I once held that one must be baptized in Jesus name to be saved, then didn't, then did, then didn't, etc. But, my question is, if a person is going down in the waters of baptism with the preacher saying the triune formula, would they not be doing so in the authority of Christ? I do believe Jesus name baptism is an acceptable formula for baptism, but the point I want to make is this, that if it were that vitally important that baptism be done correctly, why then is the Holy Spirit being so heavily and wonderfully being poured out upon those who have not been baptized in Jesus name?

Like I said, not to be contentious, but just a point to ponder.

Matt. 28:19 was a direct order.