Righteousness

[mizpeh]

Is being reckoned righteous the same as being forgiven of sin?

Romans 4:1-9

4 What then are we to say was gained by[a] Abraham, our ancestor according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.” 4 Now to one who works, wages are not reckoned as a gift but as something due. 5 But to one who without works trusts him who justifies the ungodly, such faith is reckoned as righteousness. 6 So also David speaks of the blessedness of those to whom God reckons righteousness apart from works:

7 “Blessed are those whose iniquities are forgiven,
and whose sins are covered;
8 blessed is the one against whom the Lord will not reckon sin.”
9 Is this blessedness, then, pronounced only on the circumcised, or also on the uncircumcised? We say, “Faith was reckoned to Abraham as righteousness.”

[mfblume]

Definitely.

And baptism, like circumcision after Abraham was considered righteous, is a seal. Had God foreknown Abraham would not be circumcised, he would not have reckoned Abraham righteous, for the required faith is faith that acts.

That's what you were thinking of, right?

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Definitely.

And baptism, like circumcision after Abraham was considered righteous, is a seal. Had God foreknown Abraham would not be circumcised, he would not have reckoned Abraham righteous, for the required faith is faith that acts.

That's what you were thinking of, right?

no,not at all but I appreciate your response.

[mizpeh]

How is being reckoned righteous the same as being forgiven?

[Scott Pitta]

Righteousness is being in right standing with God. Forgiven is much the same thing.

[thephnxman]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

no,not at all but I appreciate your response.

YOU ASKED:
1) Is being reckoned righteous the same as being forgiven of sin?

2) How is being reckoned righteous the same as being forgiven?


Was righteousness reckoned because Abraham believed in God (God's existence)?
...or...
Was it reckoned to Abraham because he believed God (in God's promise)?

[Esaias]

Two sides of the same coin. When one is forgiven they are declared righteous. If the Lord does not impute sin to a person it means righteousness is imputed them. The contrast in Romans is between being under the law, trying to be justified by works, vs being under grace (the new covenant) and being justified by faith, irregardless of physical circumcision. So under the law everybody is condemned, because nobody actually obeyed it. Therefore God declared "there is none righteous". This was said to those under the law, therefore nobody under the law is or can be righteous. The gentiles were condemned as heathens already, and the Jews were condemned in the law. Therefore ALL THE WORLD is officially guilty of sin, under death, and in need of salvation.

This was done so that all the world, Jew and gentile, could be saved. Salvation had to be apart from the law so that those outside the law could be saved as well as those under thr law. This salvation comes through faith in Jesus Christ. It brings forgiveness of sins to Jew and gentile, by faith in Christ. It brings the imputation of righteousness to Jew and gentile by faith in Jesus Christ.

It was modelled by Abraham, whose faith in God was imputed to him for righteousness while he was a "gentile", priot to circumcision. Therefore righteousness is not dependent on that circumcision, and so the gentiles can be saved by faith (while the Jews would be saved through faith) without regard to physical circumcision.

Both groups, to be saved and declared righteous, must have their sins blotted out ie forgiven. If one's criminal history is erased, one is thereby declared righteous. The two go together, they are two results of being placed in the new covenant.

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Two sides of the same coin. When one is forgiven they are declared righteous. If the Lord does not impute sin to a person it means righteousness is imputed them. The contrast in Romans is between being under the law, trying to be justified by works, vs being under grace (the new covenant) and being justified by faith, irregardless of physical circumcision. So under the law everybody is condemned, because nobody actually obeyed it. Therefore God declared "there is none righteous". This was said to those under the law, therefore nobody under the law is or can be righteous. The gentiles were condemned as heathens already, and the Jews were condemned in the law. Therefore ALL THE WORLD is officially guilty of sin, under death, and in need of salvation.

This was done so that all the world, Jew and gentile, could be saved. Salvation had to be apart from the law so that those outside the law could be saved as well as those under thr law. This salvation comes through faith in Jesus Christ. It brings forgiveness of sins to Jew and gentile, by faith in Christ. It brings the imputation of righteousness to Jew and gentile by faith in Jesus Christ.

It was modelled by Abraham, whose faith in God was imputed to him for righteousness while he was a "gentile", priot to circumcision. Therefore righteousness is not dependent on that circumcision, and so the gentiles can be saved by faith (while the Jews would be saved through faith) without regard to physical circumcision.

Both groups, to be saved and declared righteous, must have their sins blotted out ie forgiven. If one's criminal history is erased, one is thereby declared righteous. The two go together, they are two results of being placed in the new covenant.

This happens at the moment one believes in Jesus? Then why didn't Peter say so in Acts 2?

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

Righteousness is being in right standing with God. Forgiven is much the same thing.

It can't be the same thing. One comes before the other.

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by thephnxman

YOU ASKED:
1) Is being reckoned righteous the same as being forgiven of sin?

2) How is being reckoned righteous the same as being forgiven?


Was righteousness reckoned because Abraham believed in God (God's existence)?
...or...
Was it reckoned to Abraham because he believed God (in God's promise)?

I would think that Abraham believed that God existed before he believed in the promise God gave him. I agree with Scott that to be righteous means that one is in a right standing with God. Righteousness was reckoned to Abraham when he believed the promise of God.