[48] Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect. Matt 5:48
Which one should they believe?
This is often one of the most misquoted scriptures among people with Apostolic roots. When pulled out of context it appears Jesus is commanding perfection. The context is the Sermon on the Mount in Matt. 5. Jesus has just gone through a series of laws and the misinterpretations that the Pharisees had introduced. "You have heard it said..." Jesus repeats and then He says, "But I say..."
The Pharisees taught that righteousness was possible through the keeping of the law. Therefore in order to keep themselves law-abiding, they interpreted laws such as "thou shalt not commit adultery" narrowly. As long as one did not commit the actual physical act of adultery, you were righteous. Jesus exposes that false interpretation by revealing that God sees the lust of the heart and eyes and considers it sin as well. The Pharisees broadly interpreted Moses' permission for divorce for "uncleanness" in Deuteronomy. The had a broad definition for "uncleanness". A man could declare his wife unclean if he didn't like her cooking! Seriously, its true! Jesus clarifies and says if you divorce your wife for any other cause than fornication you are committing a sin if you remarry and if she remarries she sins. On and on it goes.
Finally at the end of this discourse Jesus says, "Be perfect as your Father in bheaven is perfect." The context is, "If you are going to fulfill the law, you have to have a perfect track record, otherwise you cannot be righteous." Previously he sais, "Don't think I came to destroy the law, I came to fulfill it." Whem Jesus said, "Be perfect" He was also alluding to the fact that this was why He came, to obey every command of the Bible, making it possible for Him to be God's perfect sacrifice.
For anyone to think that perfection is possible without Jesus Christ is only fooling themselves. His righteousness becomes ours when He imputes it to us through faith.
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When a newspaper posed the question, "What's Wrong with the World?" G. K. Chesterton reputedly wrote a brief letter in response: "Dear Sirs: I am. Sincerely Yours, G. K. Chesterton." That is the attitude of someone who has grasped the message of Jesus.
This is often one of the most misquoted scriptures among people with Apostolic roots. When pulled out of context it appears Jesus is commanding perfection. The context is the Sermon on the Mount in Matt. 5. Jesus has just gone through a series of laws and the misinterpretations that the Pharisees had introduced. "You have heard it said..." Jesus repeats and then He says, "But I say..."
Problem is its NOT out of context. It is Jesus teaching his disciples how to live their lives. He contrasts the life of true holiness against the external observance of the Pharisees. For 3 chapters he gives instructions for being HIS disciple.
So the context IS about doing the will of God. So the REASON it seems he is commanding perfection is because thats the whole context of what he was doing.
Quote:
For anyone to think that perfection is possible without Jesus Christ is only fooling themselves. His righteousness becomes ours when He imputes it to us through faith.
Of course it would be foolish for anyone to think they can be perfect apart from Christ. Matter of fact I have NEVER heard a Christian teacher of ANY Denomination say that one can.
On the OTHER HAND since Jesus makes his people into a new creation by means of a new birth they are able BY FAITH to do anything they are instructed to do of the Lord!
After all THEY are now HIS righteousness.
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Cor. 5:21
The Spirit filled Christian because he IS a new creation is expected to operate as he was designed to do by his Creator. As the righteousness of God!
Last edited by Michael The Disciple; 09-17-2010 at 01:52 PM.
Would you care to address the point of the thread? If "perfect" means complete rather than lets say perfect meaning as to holiness what IS meant by "complete"?
Is God "complete"?
In what way?
When Jesus says be "complete" as the Father is "complete" what does he mean?
48"In a word, what I'm saying is, Grow up. You're kingdom subjects. Now live like it. Live out your God-created identity. Live generously and graciously toward others, the way God lives toward you."
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Master of Science in Applied Disgruntled Religious Theorist Wrangling
PhD in Petulant Tantrum Quelling
Dean of the School of Hard Knocks
Barnes' Notes on the Bible
Be ye therefore perfect ... - The Saviour concludes this part of the discourse by commanding his disciples to be "perfect." This word commonly means "finished, complete, pure, holy." Originally, it is applied to a piece of mechanism, as a machine that is complete in its parts. Applied to people, it refers to completeness of parts, or perfection, where no part is defective or wanting. Thus, Job JObadiah 1:1 is said to be "perfect;" that is, not holy as God, or "sinless" - for fault is afterward found with him Job 9:20; Job 42:6; but his piety was "proportionate" - had a completeness of parts was consistent and regular. He exhibited his religion as a prince, a father, an individual, a benefactor of the poor. He was not merely a pious man in one place, but uniformly. He was consistent everywhere. See the notes at that passage. This is the meaning in Matthew. Be not religious merely in loving your friends and neighbors, but let your piety be shown in loving your enemies; imitate God; let your piety be "complete, proportionate, regular." This every Christian may be; this every Christian must be.
Scofield Reference Notes
[1] perfect
The word implies full development, growth into maturity of godliness, not sinless perfection.
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Master of Science in Applied Disgruntled Religious Theorist Wrangling
PhD in Petulant Tantrum Quelling
Dean of the School of Hard Knocks
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