Help With The Greek

[Michael The Disciple]

My next question is have somehow the Greek rules changed over the years?

Its my understanding that Tyndale first gave us a Bible from Greek into English.

This is supposed to be his translation.

https://www.faithofgod.net/WTNT/john_1.html

John 1:1

¶ In the beginning was that word, and that word was with god: and god was that word.

Also the first Bible in English was actually translated from Latin by Wycliffe. This was several hundred years I believe before Tyndale.

http://wesley.nnu.edu/fileadmin/impo...cliffe/Joh.txt

1 In the bigynnyng was the word, and the word was at God, and God was the word.

Both these translations were far earlier than the English of today.

So for hundreds of years English speaking people owned Bibles that gave us GOD WAS THE WORD

So how did that happen?

Online it is said Tyndale knew 7 languages and was counted as a genius in his time.

Did he in actuality NOT understand the Greek?

Could the rules whereby men translate have changed over the years?

[Scott Pitta]

The language is spoken just like it is read.

[Costeon]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

My next question is have somehow the Greek rules changed over the years?

Its my understanding that Tyndale first gave us a Bible from Greek into English.

This is supposed to be his translation.

https://www.faithofgod.net/WTNT/john_1.html

John 1:1

¶ In the beginning was that word, and that word was with god: and god was that word.

Also the first Bible in English was actually translated from Latin by Wycliffe. This was several hundred years I believe before Tyndale.

http://wesley.nnu.edu/fileadmin/impo...cliffe/Joh.txt

1 In the bigynnyng was the word, and the word was at God, and God was the word.

Both these translations were far earlier than the English of today.

So for hundreds of years English speaking people owned Bibles that gave us GOD WAS THE WORD

So how did that happen?

Online it is said Tyndale knew 7 languages and was counted as a genius in his time.

Did he in actuality NOT understand the Greek?

Could the rules whereby men translate have changed over the years?

In all the periods of Greek that I ever studied (Homer through the NT) this basic grammatical rule applied.

Wycliffe translated from the Latin, and as it has been noted, the Latin reads Deus erat Verbum, so Wycliffe translated it word for word as "God was the Word."

Tyndale knew Greek, but that doesn't mean he was infallible and could never be inaccurate. However, please see the following link. It is to a site that says it's Tyndale's NT: https://www.biblestudytools.com/tyn/john/1.html. It is different from the version you linked to and agrees will all other English translations.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

It is spoken as it is written. The last spoken word in the sentence would be logos.

But that's not how English speakers would say it

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

Thanks for your input. I have been out of school for 49 years and dont remember much about the rules of language so please bear with me.

All the Interlinears I have seen end the sentence with "God was the word". Is this leading the average guy astray?

Also if the Greek was the original and the Aramaic and the Latin were copies of it why do both of them end the sentence the same way as in the Interlinears?

Interlinears arent translations. An inter linear of the Greek NT is the actual Greek text with a corresponding value under each word

[Scott Pitta]

Our understanding of Koine Greek language and literature has improved over the last 500 years. Translation theory and technique has also changed.

So has the English language.

Examining how Tyndale translates the same phrases or sentence constructions in John might answer why he translated Jn. 1:1 the way he did.

[Michael The Disciple]

So what I am seeking is to know what John actually wrote IN GREEK. I understand how it looks when translated into English. If the Interlinear is showing the words as written in the actual Greek text and Scott said:

It is spoken as it is written. The last spoken word in the sentence would be logos.

Prax said:

An inter linear of the Greek NT is the actual Greek text with a corresponding value under each word

So forgetting the idea of translating into English does the actual Greek text read God was the word?

[Michael The Disciple]

So is THIS the answer?

Scott said:

It is spoken as it is written. The last spoken word in the sentence would be logos.

Prax said:

But that's not how English speakers would say it

One reading or speaking the verse in Greek would see and speak the last 4 words as God was the word?

[Scott Pitta]

The same way a "white house" in Spanish is a "house white".

The word order is different, but the meaning is the same.

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

The same way a "white house" in Spanish is a "house white".

The word order is different, but the meaning is the same.

So the word order is God was the word in Greek, but the word was God in English?