End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11

[RJR]

Originally Posted by Sasha

No.



Show me a verse where a woman prophesied in the NT. Not that they would. But that they DID.

Not that I personally care, since I'm not the one who has to see it specifically in scripture to believe that it pertains to me and my children. YOU are the one wanting specifics.

Originally Posted by Sasha

This is what I said that you highlighted:

You also excuse women to do things that are also not mentioned in scripture with specifics you claim are lacking when it comes to women preaching.

IOW, YOU are the one posting how the Bible doesn't say this and doesn't say that about women preaching, but then say women can do other things when scripture also doesn't give specifics. YOU are the one wanting specifics on certain things but don't require them of other issues.

You asked for the verse above and I posted where Paul gave his requirements for them prophesying in 1 Cor 11. So please ask me the questions you say we can not give specifics for, and when you are finished I will be happy to ask you some questions.

Please begin.

[RJR]

Originally Posted by Sasha

Are you married? If so, is your wife forbidden from teaching you anything? Do you really think that verse is saying that?

No, I do not think the verse is saying that. Sis Alvear has said 1 Tim 2 is concerning a husband and wife in the home. I think 1 Tim 2:11-12 has the same prohibition in mind as 1Cor 14:34-35. Where have you been this entire discussion, the post you reference is actually pointing to the absurdity of her position?!

[Sister Alvear]

Still no scriptue saying a woman cannot preach....

[Sister Alvear]

1 Timothy 2:12, in which Paul states "I do not suffer (permit) a woman to teach, or usurp authority over a man." In interpreting this verse, it is important to remember that the Greek words for "man" and "husband," as well as the words for "woman" and "wife," are the same. In the very next verse, Paul refers back to Adam being formed first, then Eve.

From all indications, this passage is, by context, referring to the marriage relationship, not the church. Paul is not saying that men cannot learn from women. Rather, he is simply stating that women are not to be manipulative or domineering over their husbands. There is a big difference.

[Sister Alvear]

This is not dealing with "church" authority but authority in the "home." The context proves it. Paul uses Adam and Eve as the example of authority. What relationship did Adam and Eve have? They were husband and wife, not pastor and sheep. Since there is no Greek word for husband and wife, the word "man" and "woman" is also translated "husband" and "wife", and based on the context these words should have been translated as such.

In my Bible in Portuguese it says exactly that...Não permito, porém, que a mulher ensine, nem use de autoridade sobre o marido, mas que esteja em silêncio.

The word marido is husband....
1 Timóteo 2:12-13

[Sister Alvear]

I Timothy 2:11-12 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection, But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived in the transgression. Now we read what the above scripture says, but what does it really say? When we look up the word woman in the Strong's Concordance we find that this use of "women" is Strong's number 1135, The definition of this use of woman is "wife.”

[RJR]

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

1 Timothy 2:12, in which Paul states "I do not suffer (permit) a woman to teach, or usurp authority over a man." In interpreting this verse, it is important to remember that the Greek words for "man" and "husband," as well as the words for "woman" and "wife," are the same. In the very next verse, Paul refers back to Adam being formed first, then Eve.

From all indications, this passage is, by context, referring to the marriage relationship, not the church. Paul is not saying that men cannot learn from women. Rather, he is simply stating that women are not to be manipulative or domineering over their husbands. There is a big difference.

1Ti 2:12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet.

Teach:

1a) to hold discourse with others in order to instruct them, deliver didactic discourses

1b) to be a teacher

1c) to discharge the office of a teacher, conduct one’s self as a teacher

2) to teach one

2a) to impart instruction

2b) instill doctrine into one

2c) the thing taught or enjoined

2d) to explain or expound a thing

2f) to teach one something

Sis Alvear, please answer these 3 simple questions.

1 Are you saying a wife cannot teach her husband at home, but it is ok for her to teach her husband at church?

2. Can this woman teacher who cannot teach her husband at home free to teach someone else's husband at church?

3. Is this verse saying that only single women can teach?

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

Still no scriptue saying a woman cannot preach....

LOL - Yesssssssss Sis. A., the Scriptures plainly state that a woman is not to "teach-preach" to men in the church....You simply deny this crystal-clear teachings of the Bible !




So silly.....

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

1 Timothy 2:12, in which Paul states "I do not suffer (permit) a woman to teach, or usurp authority over a man." In interpreting this verse, it is important to remember that the Greek words for "man" and "husband," as well as the words for "woman" and "wife," are the same. In the very next verse, Paul refers back to Adam being formed first, then Eve.

From all indications, this passage is, by context, referring to the marriage relationship, not the church. Paul is not saying that men cannot learn from women. Rather, he is simply stating that women are not to be manipulative or domineering over their husbands. There is a big difference.

Oh my goodness - Is this crazy or what? How many word definitions, syntactical quotes, exegetical facts, independent translations & professional linguists do we have to provide to this same copy-paste job ??



Noooooooo Sis. A, this text is NOT talking about the "wife & husband in the home" & the Apostle Paul directly said he was writing Timothy to set "the church" in order....You CAN'T be serious at this point (well, never mind )??

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

This is not dealing with "church" authority but authority in the "home." The context proves it. Paul uses Adam and Eve as the example of authority. What relationship did Adam and Eve have? They were husband and wife, not pastor and sheep. Since there is no Greek word for husband and wife, the word "man" and "woman" is also translated "husband" and "wife", and based on the context these words should have been translated as such.

In my Bible in Portuguese it says exactly that...Não permito, porém, que a mulher ensine, nem use de autoridade sobre o marido, mas que esteja em silêncio.

The word marido is husband....
1 Timóteo 2:12-13

Ummmm, no, the "context," grammar, & literally hundreds of professional linguists "proves" the diametrical-polar opposite ! Shall I repost all of the translations for ya' - along with Drs. Daniel Wallace, Mike Burer, Douglas Moo, Thomas Schreiner, D.A. Carson, Kostenberger, Grudem, Mounce, etc., etc., etc.??? I mean are you even reading their emails & quotes that I have posted (remember these are the actual translators themselves !)??



Silly - The Greek nouns translated as "man" & "woman" in this passage simply means "man" & "woman" - Just like they are translated in virtually every reputable translation (combining hundreds of professional linguists & text-critics). As Dr. Wallace said, "only if there are sufficient markers such as possessive pronouns do these nouns mean 'husband' and 'wife', none of this is going on in I Timothy 2 (which is why syntactical reason virtually every translator adopts the renderings 'husband' & 'wife')."


And, go figure, you have been told & shown this for years now - what do you do? What you've always done: Totally ignore the inspired language of the Bible which specifically refutes your error - & keep posting the same ol' misinformation ! You are not interested in biblical truth on this matter - only in defending your personal (false) teachings.

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

I Timothy 2:11-12 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection, But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived in the transgression. Now we read what the above scripture says, but what does it really say? When we look up the word woman in the Strong's Concordance we find that this use of "women" is Strong's number 1135, The definition of this use of woman is "wife.”

Oh, you mean that Strong's that defines "speak" as "PREACH" in I Cor. 14.34 ?? Yes M'aam, I think I remember that source!



Worse, as usual, your info. is wrong - & yes, readers, pls. DO look up the Greek noun translated as "woman" - it means - ready for this deep definition: WOMAN ! Only when there are "specific" markings can this noun mean "wife" - NONE of which are found in I Tim. 2 (which is why the translators have adopted the rendering of simply "woman")!



Keep making up your own Bible - But we will be here to correct you! Doesn't matter to me if this thread continues all year - we will be here to demonstrate the continued (& willful) falsehoods !

[rdp]

Originally Posted by RJR

1Ti 2:12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet.

Teach:

1a) to hold discourse with others in order to instruct them, deliver didactic discourses

1b) to be a teacher

1c) to discharge the office of a teacher, conduct one’s self as a teacher

2) to teach one

2a) to impart instruction

2b) instill doctrine into one

2c) the thing taught or enjoined

2d) to explain or expound a thing

2f) to teach one something

Sis Alvear, please answer these 3 simple questions.

1 Are you saying a wife cannot teach her husband at home, but it is ok for her to teach her husband at church?

2. Can this woman teacher who cannot teach her husband at home free to teach someone else's husband at church?

3. Is this verse saying that only single women can teach?

I wouldn't hold my breath for any direct (or any other) answer to these simple questions - but now, more copy-paste of the same ol' misinformation that has been directly refuted for years now - you can take that to the bank !

[Praxeas]

Has anyone discussed what Paul meant by "I do not permit"?