Quote:
Originally Posted by mfblume
The chapter mentions persecution that made it better to stay single. " This distress. " That's persecution. But if the daughters marry then let them marry so long as its to a saved man.... in the Lord.
1 Cor 7: 26 I suppose therefore that this is good for the present distress, I say, that it is good for a man so to be. note
27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.
28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.
36 But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.
Just because Paul said it's better to remain single to be free to do more for God and also due to burden of persecution in those days, having to care for family in times of danger, it's still not a son to marry.
Only to saved people.
39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; >>>>only in the Lord.<<<<
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Just a couple of added thoughts, as I read these passages and studied them. First the term virgin is entirely an English word we must not confuse with the issue at hand.
The word virgin, in the Greek is maiden, by implication, an unmarried daughter. Just because the translators used the word "virgin" does not necessitate, that they had not had sexual relations. Yes I know so shoot me for even thinking such a thing.
The second thing I saw, is that the father gave his daughter to be married, it was the fathers choice, he could keep his daughters at home unmarried. This is the part where Paul says "if any man think the father behaves uncomely towards his unmarried daughter". It is speaking of a father that does not marry his daughter off by the time she becomes a women.
That being said, other than the part of the chapter where Paul speaks of not defrauding your mate, in marriage, Paul does not address sexual impurity before marriage in this chapter.
Don't get me wrong, that is not to say Paul does not teach against fornication, because he teaches against ALL sexual impurity else where.
Dealing with the later part of the chapter, when he says the married wife is bound to her husband as long as he lives, by law. What law is he speaking of? That was a rhetorical question, by the way. For it does not matter if he was speaking of the cultural law in Corinth, or Mosaic law, the end is the same.
What I did get from verse 39. Is that while the husband of the wife that was given in marriage by her father still lives she is bound to stay with him as long as he is alive. But if he dies she is free to marry who she choose so long as he is saved.
Just a few thoughts I got on the subject when studying this chapter.