Meaning of "Eis" (for) in
Acts 2:38
In
Acts 2:38, Peter said: "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins..."
There are many who claim that the word "for" in
Acts 2:38 means "because", making this passage mean that we are baptized because we have already been forgiven. This is an attempt to avoid the plain teaching of God's Word that baptism is necessary for the sinner to be forgiven. We are not baptized because we already have been forgiven, but in order to receive forgiveness of sins.
The phrase "for the remission of sins" is translated from the Greek phrase "eis aphesin hamartion."
"Remission" is from "aphesin" {af'-es-in}. It is defined as: 1. Release from bondage or imprisonment. 2. Forgiveness or pardon, of sins(letting them go as if they had never been committed), remission of the penalty.
"Sins" is translated from "hamartion" {ham-ar-tee'-on}. It is defined as: 1. To be without a share in; to miss the mark; to err, be mistaken; to miss or wander from the path of uprightness and honor, to do or go wrong; to wander from the law of God, violate God's law, sin.
2. That which is done wrong, sin, an offense, a violation of the divine law in thought or in act.
Generally, there is no disagreement concerning the meaning of aphesin and hamartion. There is much debate over the meaning of "eis" in this passage in
Acts 2:38, which is translated "for."
To better understand
Acts 2:38, it is helpful to read
Matthew 26:28 where the phrase "for the remission of sins" is also used. The phrase in both Matthew and Acts is the same in both the Greek and English. There, Jesus said: "For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. "
How can one claim to be consistent when they say the phrase "for the remission of sins" means one thing in one passage, and means something completely different in another? One common method used when studying controversial verses is to see how the same words are used in other, easier verses. Why is this method totally ignored when considering Acts
2:38? No one argues over the meaning of
Matthew 26:28. The meaning is obvious. The only reason the meaning of
Acts 2:38 is not just as obvious is that so many people approach the Bible with preconceived ideas and refuse to accept simple teaching that contradicts what they want to believe. We need to be searching for what the Bible actually says, not how Martin Luther or anyone else interpreted it. When the Bible says baptism is for the remission of sins, or to wash away sins, or to be freed from sin,(
Acts 2:38, 22:16,
Romans 6:3-7,
Colossians 2:11-13), we can either accept what the Bible says or we will find ourselves arguing with the Author of the Bible.
Please pay close attention to the warning in Isaiah:
Isaiah 45:9 "Woe to him who strives with his Maker!..."
If we teach we are to be baptized because our sins have already been forgiven, then, to be consistent, we must teach that Jesus shed His blood because our sins have already been forgiven. Who wants to teach that Jesus died on the cross because we are already forgiven? The clear teaching of the Bible is that Jesus shed His blood in order that we might receive forgiveness of our sins. If we accept this, then, to be consistent, we should also accept that we are baptized in order that we might receive forgiveness of our sins. If not, why not?
There is a Greek word that is often translated "for" and it does mean "because". There are some men, who, through either dishonesty or ignorance, argue that the word "for" in the early chapters of Acts means "because". Therefore, Peter meant that we are baptized "because" of remission of sins. The passages these men use include:
Acts 4:3 And they laid hands on them, and put them in hold unto the next day: for it was now eventide.
Acts 4:16 Saying, What shall we do to these men? For that indeed a notable miracle hath been done by them is manifest to all them that dwell in Jerusalem; and we cannot deny it.
Acts 4:21-22 So when they had further threatened them, they let them go, finding nothing how they might punish them, because of the people: for all men glorified God for that which was done. 22 For the man was above forty years old, on whom this miracle of healing was showed.
Acts 4:34 Neither was there any among them that lacked: for as many as were possessors of lands or houses sold them, and brought the prices of the things that were sold,
In all of these verses, the Greek word translated “for” is not “eis”, but “gar.” Thayer's Lexicon says that gar: "is properly a particle of affirmation and conclusion, denoting truly, therefore, verily as the case stands... It adduces the Cause or gives the Reason of the preceding statement or opinion."
Notice how "gar" is used in Galatians:
Galatians 3:26-27 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
In this passage, Paul gives the reason why we are children of God by faith. "For..."
The Bible clearly says that baptism is "for the remission of sins", that it washes away sins (
Acts 22:16), that through baptism, "our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed," (
Rom. 6:3-8),that through baptism God has "forgiven you all trespasses" (
Col. 2:11-13), and that the church is cleansed by the washing of water by the Word (
Eph. 5:25), and that baptism "doth also now save us" (
1 Peter 3:21). We must follow what the Bible says, and not arguments of men claiming that God did not mean what He wrote in His Word. Only by including these passages on baptism, can we continue to honestly make the claim that we are trying to be teaching ALL of God's Word, and not just parts of it.
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