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Originally Posted by synycisity
Wow, you are kidding about psychology I hope.... you just said Vegas had an association with a wicked philosophy I wonder if I can report that?
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My utter contempt for psychology is well known here.
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Because he did not go through with the counseling... you cannot FORCE a person to get counseling (in this situation but in others you can, I highly disagree with it). I agree that only God is good but what does that have to do with this discussion? Seriously I have read all the posts thus far and it seems you have meandered off the path...
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Vegas said "The student that shot and killed 32 other students at VT had been brought to a counseling center because of his writing." My reply, which was directly related to this particular statement Vegas made, was "Obviously the counseling didn't do him any good. Maybe the real issue there wasn't some sort of "mental illness" but, instead, evil. Humans are evil by nature. Jesus went so far as to say that there is none good but God." What my statement about how only God is good is relevant to the specific statement to which I replied and was intended to support my statement that humans are evil by nature and, thus, my speculation that the kid's real problem was not so-called "mental illness" but evil.
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In the preamble of the constitution it declares "and provide for the common defense" this to me seems to denote that we are protected from individuals.
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Only if you stretch it so far out of proportion as to make it unrecognizable! Of course, being protected from individuals is not the same as some fabrication about having a right to be protected from what people say or write.
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Thanks for the pointless comment offering's the feudalism.
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Your sentence makes no sense whatsoever.
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It does... because judicial power is set to interpret the law... they are the frontlines and that is exactly what they were intended to do.
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There is nothing in Article III of the Constitution that even remotely suggests interpreting the Constitution. Instead, the Constitution is the standard against which laws are to be interpreted.
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Is not prohibiting infringement against not granting the freedom thereof?
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No, because the founders held that it is not governments that grant rights. The government cannot grant or deny rights.
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I fail to see any logic in that statement as well as others where you say that you do not imply...ever... thats silly because by saying that it is a prohibition you just implied that the right to free speech wont be infringed upon.
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I don't imply. My statements mean exactly and only what is written and it is not your place to assign any other meaning to them. In stating that the government was prohibited from abridging the right of free speech,
the founding fathers accepted that there was a right of free speech. Read the first amendment for yourself.
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That is what Vegas said.... written speech does infringe upon other peoples safety... if I write something that would cause someone else to feel unsafe about my actions I am therefore taking away their right to feel safe. The freedom of speech was never intended to mean slander vulgarity... I guarantee the forefathers did not have playboy in mind when they gave freedom of the press.. this is why we have the Supreme court. New things come about that were not accounted for.
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I know what he said, I placed my reply right after the quote! And, again, NO, written speech does not infringe upon the safety of other and, further, there is no right to "feel" safe. The amendment says that the freedom of speech shall not be abridged. You must take that absolutely literally because the founding fathers did not further qualify the statement. Of course, freedom of the press has nothing whatsoever to do with this discussion.
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The freedom of speech was there to appease the conservative people.. they did not want the government to infringe upon peoples rights to do the things they had been doing all their lives. IT was added because it had been done many times before where people were not allowed to speak ill of leaders without punishment.. so the federalists wrote that in as an AMENDMENT to the constitution.
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No the first amendment (and the other nine in the "Bill of Rights" were insisted upon by at least some of the states as a condition upon which they would ratify the Constitution. Since the states were being asked to give up some of their autonomy to a federal government, they wanted certain guarantees that would keep the federal government in check.