Receiving The Holy Spirit & Speaking In Tongues

[Johnson]

If Jesus is the Lamb of God then who is the Lion of God?

[Johnson]

[1 Cor 8:6] One God the Father? Yes or No?
Yes... there is one God the Father of Jesus Christ.

[Dt 6:4] One Lord? Yes or No?
No... there are many Lords.

[Dt 6:4]The One Lord is God? Yes or No?
No.... The Lord is God.

[Dt 6:4 and 1 Cor 8:6] The one Lord is the one God, the Father? Yes or No?
No ...The Lord God is the Father of Jesus Christ.

[Dt 6:4 and 1 Cor 8:6] the one Lord is Jesus Christ and He is the one God, the Father? Yes or No?
No...Jesus Christ is the Son of the Lord God.
[Dt 6:4 and 1 Cor 8:6] The Lord is one,
the Lord is Jesus Christ, the Lord Jesus Christ is the one God, the Father? Yes or No?
No...the Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of the Lord God.

Originally Posted by Bowas

According to this scripture, who is "the true God?"

Originally Posted by covey

Jesus Christ.

Originally Posted by w4yne

Who is the True Son of God?

Originally Posted by covey

Allow me make it easy for you and me. Jesus Christ is God the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

Originally Posted by covey

The answer is Jesus Christ.

Luke
Chapter 12

8 Also I say unto you, Whosoever shall confess me before men,
him shall the Son of man also confess before the angels of God:

9 But he that denieth me before men shall be denied before the angels of God.

10 And whosoever shall speak a word against the Son of man,
it shall be forgiven him: but unto him that blasphemeth
against the Holy Ghost it shall not be forgiven.


As you can see here according to this scripture,
you can blaspheme Jesus Christ the son of man
(according to you Jesus Christ is the son of man) and be forgiven...
but not if you blaspheme the Holy Ghost.

Therefore proving that the son of man and the Holy Ghost
therefore cannot be as you have claimed....

Originally Posted by covey

Allow me make it easy for you and me. Jesus Christ is God the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

Unless you overcome this truth that has destroyed your theology. Or say something that will warrant my response...
I will not respond further for this proof defeats all you have stated.
Besides all that you contradicted yourself many times...
Even trying to use verses from the bible as to support your theology.

I feel very confident that I have won this debate...

I rest my case before the one True Lord God
and the one First True Son, the Lord Jesus Christ.

[covey]

Originally Posted by Johnson

[1 Cor 8:6] One God the Father? Yes or No?
Yes... there is one God the Father of Jesus Christ.

[Dt 6:4] One Lord? Yes or No?
No... there are many Lords.

[Dt 6:4]The One Lord is God? Yes or No?
No.... The Lord is God.

[Dt 6:4 and 1 Cor 8:6] The one Lord is the one God, the Father? Yes or No?
No ...The Lord God is the Father of Jesus Christ.

[Dt 6:4 and 1 Cor 8:6] the one Lord is Jesus Christ and He is the one God, the Father? Yes or No?
No...Jesus Christ is the Son of the Lord God.
[Dt 6:4 and 1 Cor 8:6] The Lord is one,
the Lord is Jesus Christ, the Lord Jesus Christ is the one God, the Father? Yes or No?
No...the Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of the Lord God.







Luke
Chapter 12

8 Also I say unto you, Whosoever shall confess me before men,
him shall the Son of man also confess before the angels of God:

9 But he that denieth me before men shall be denied before the angels of God.

10 And whosoever shall speak a word against the Son of man,
it shall be forgiven him: but unto him that blasphemeth
against the Holy Ghost it shall not be forgiven.


As you can see here according to this scripture,
you can blaspheme Jesus Christ the son of man
(according to you Jesus Christ is the son of man) and be forgiven...
but not if you blaspheme the Holy Ghost.

Therefore proving that the son of man and the Holy Ghost
therefore cannot be as you have claimed....


Unless you overcome this truth that has destroyed your theology. Or say something that will warrant my response...
I will not respond further for this proof defeats all you have stated.
Besides all that you contradicted yourself many times...
Even trying to use verses from the bible as to support your theology.

I feel very confident that I have won this debate...

I rest my case before the one True Lord God
and the one First True Son, the Lord Jesus Christ.

LOL. You offere ZERO explanation of your case. Just because you answered the questions according to your belief, it does not prove you are correct. The questions were simple to answer correctly.

1 Cor 8:6 There is one God, the Father (only one that can be God. Identify Him and you have the Father).
1 Cor 8:6 The Lord is only one Lord, He is identified as Jesus Christ s the 'one Lord"
Dt 6: The Lord is God. -There you have it. " The Lord is God the Father. The Lord has been identified as Jesus Christ. Therefore, Jesus Christ is God the father and the Lord. Thomas understood this that is why in John 20:28 he called Jesus "his Lord and His God". The one Thomas knew as Jesus was his one Lord and one God. God is one in Jesus Christ!

I don't blame you for not answering again. I wouldn't either if I was in your shoes, with your attitude. You arer wrong and you cannot prove otherwise.

[covey]

Originally Posted by Johnson

You contradict yourself so much that it would be easier for you to cut and past anything that you have said that is not in contradiction to anything else you have said.

there is no contradiction in you. You are a troll. Goodbye.

[KeptByTheWord]

Originally Posted by covey

I am sorry, but he focus of the passage is "the sound of everyone that is born of the Spirit." From that point on, the only sound that can possibly come from everyone born of the Spirit is from the tongue. There is no other option, yet you forced an option onto the passage that is NOT there.

A better phrasing of this scripture would be... as the sound of the wind has a distinct sound, and yet no one can see it coming and going, so everyone who is born of the spirit will have a distinct sound, and no one will see it coming or going.

Would you agree with this?

I do see what you are trying to say about this passage of scripture. It means that to be born of the spirit, there must be a distinct sound that accompanies that birth.

Originally Posted by covey

It appears you are studying the Bible to prove your are correct, instead of examining the Scriptures to see what is true. I can't see how you could have possibly read the definition of "sound", then turn around and give an example by comparison of an inanimate thing (trumpet) to the "sound" of every living one that has a tongue. the definition does not allow it.

It may seem that way to you, but I truly do not ever want to read anything into or out of a passage of scripture that was not meant.

I do stand corrected, and I understand the point you are conveying.

Thank you Covey, for adequately pointing out the error in my comprehension of this passage. Because there was the sound of wind on the DOP, it would seem that if every time one received the spirit, the sound of wind would be heard. But when stepping back and just reading this passage, it is clear that Jesus is letting Nicodemus know that just as there is a distinct sound of wind there will be a distinct sound made when one is born of the spirit.

I remain unconvinced that the sound of the spirit has to be tongues, because we see many examples where people were saved without speaking in tongues in Acts. For example, the Apostle Paul had three chances to say he spoke in tongues with his Damascus experience, and yet not once did he say that he spoke in tongues, in all three of his accounts, given to different people. Although, we know later in his writings he does mention speaking in tongues.

Could it be that calling on the name of the Lord and believing on the Lord could be the sound of the spirit in one being born, because we see that mentioned many times, where they "called on the name of the Lord and were saved."

Romans 10:13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Acts 2:21 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

1 Corinthians 1:2 Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:

1 Corinthians 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.

2 Timothy 2:22 Flee also youthful lusts: but follow righteousness, faith, charity, peace, with them that call on the Lord out of a pure heart.

Originally Posted by covey

Varies in what way" Inanimate things compared to living things? Yes, and you disregarded 133 comparisons to find one or two you like?

The John 3:8 reference to sound of wind is where the inanimate sound comes from.

Originally Posted by covey

It is only obvious to you, because it is what you want to believe. Jesus did not say anyone would hear the sound of the wind whenever anybody (everyone), is born of the Spirit. You are superimposing onto the passage what you desperately want to be true. He said would world hear the sound ("Phone'": voice, tongue, speech) of everyone born of the Spirit.

No, I am sorry, but you are seeing something that is not in this passage. Please look at the definition of the Greek word here and apply it to the sound of everyone (living things) that is born of the Spirit.

I am beyond sorry. The only one taking liberties is your insistence the sound of the wind will be heard by everyone born of the Spirit. Despite what happened on the DOP and millions of people alive today, you insist speaking in tongues is not a sound of Everyone born of the Spirit.

I wasn't trying to take liberties, because the sound of the wind that Jesus spoke of was also heard on the DOP and seemed to correlate. However I do see your point that Jesus was saying that just as the wind has a distinct sound, so does the sound of the spirit have a distinct sound when one is born again.

[covey]

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

A better phrasing of this scripture would be... as the sound of the wind has a distinct sound, and yet no one can see it coming and going, so everyone who is born of the spirit will have a distinct sound, and no one will see it coming or going.

Would you agree with this?

Almost, but you need to remember the sound can only be heard from speech and tongue, because, both, the Spirit, and those born of the Spirit are not inanimate things. Since everyone born of the Spirit is a living thing, the sound must come from the tongue / speech. We know from the book of Acts, the sound of the Spirit speaking is heard from the tongues of everyone born of the Spirit.

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

I do see what you are trying to say about this passage of scripture. It means that to be born of the spirit, there must be a distinct sound that accompanies that birth.

It may seem that way to you, but I truly do not ever want to read anything into or out of a passage of scripture that was not meant.

I do stand corrected, and I understand the point you are conveying.

Thank you Covey, for adequately pointing out the error in my comprehension of this passage. Because there was the sound of wind on the DOP, it would seem that if every time one received the spirit, the sound of wind would be heard. But when stepping back and just reading this passage, it is clear that Jesus is letting Nicodemus know that just as there is a distinct sound of wind there will be a distinct sound made when one is born of the spirit.

Yes, you got it. I appreciate your noble spirit. All of us get caught up studying to prove what we believe is true, instead of examining the Scriptures to see what is true. We always need to be on guard, because it is easy to do. Few people even recognize this. The Berean's in Acts 4 are called more noble than others that rejected what the apostles said without examining the Scriptures to see what they said was true.

I want to be found to be noble, so I can be part of the nobility of the Kingdom of God. Don't you?

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

I remain unconvinced that the sound of the spirit has to be tongues, because we see many examples where people were saved without speaking in tongues in Acts. For example, the Apostle Paul had three chances to say he spoke in tongues with his Damascus experience, and yet not once did he say that he spoke in tongues, in all three of his accounts, given to different people. Although, we know later in his writings he does mention speaking in tongues.

Here again, it is a mistake to say something didn't happen, because it doesn't describe it as it happened. The fact that it is revealed later is enough to know Paul Spoke in tongues when he received the baptism of the Holy Spirit. However, I don't want you to "just" take my word for it. Therefore, I shall point to Acts 19:3-8, where Paul asked if the disciples received the baptism of the Holy Spirit when they believed. Paul the explained that Jesus said he would baptize them with the Holy Spirit and laid his hand on them and they spoke in tongues and prophesied- See Acts 19:6 "And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking with tongues and prophesying. Do you really believe Paul did not speak in tongues when he believed?

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

it be that calling on the name of the Lord and believing on the Lord could be the sound of the spirit in one being born, because we see that mentioned many times, where they "called on the name of the Lord and were saved."

It is true that when we call on the name of the Lord we will be saved and it is true if we believe Jesus Christ is the son of God we w ill be saved, but the question is, what does it mean to believe Jesus Christ? If we don't believe what he said and obey all that he commanded us to obey, how can we truly say we believe and are saved?

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

The John 3:8 reference to sound of wind is where the inanimate sound comes from.

Yes, That is what I have said all along. Specifically, it is a sound that comes from an inanimate thing. As stated above, The Spirit and everyone born of the Spirit is a living thing. Therefore, the definition of this word requires the sound to be heard must come from speech. Again, the book of Acts confirms the sound that is heard is from the Spirit speaking is heard from the tongues of everyone born of the Spirit.

If you need me too, I will give all of the examples in the book of Acts that shows the only way they knew when someone received the baptism of the Holy Spirit is when they HEARD them speak in tongues. Acts 10:44-46 pretty much says it all "While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. 45All the circumcised believers who came with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. 46For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God.

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

I wasn't trying to take liberties, because the sound of the wind that Jesus spoke of was also heard on the DOP and seemed to correlate. However I do see your point that Jesus was saying that just as the wind has a distinct sound, so does the sound of the spirit have a distinct sound when one is born again.

By your post here, I know you weren't. With the nobility of a Berean, you examined the Scriptures for the truth.

The only question about what you see that remains is 'Do you see the sound, in this passage, that comes from living things, must be HEARD from speech. The one speaking is the Holy Spirit as it gives the utterance, the one making the sound is EVERYONE one born of the Spirit. The sound is heard from all that are in earshot of the sound be made by the one being born of the Spirit

[CalledOut238]

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

A better phrasing of this scripture would be... as the sound of the wind has a distinct sound, and yet no one can see it coming and going, so everyone who is born of the spirit will have a distinct sound, and no one will see it coming or going.

Would you agree with this?

I do see what you are trying to say about this passage of scripture. It means that to be born of the spirit, there must be a distinct sound that accompanies that birth.

It may seem that way to you, but I truly do not ever want to read anything into or out of a passage of scripture that was not meant.

I do stand corrected, and I understand the point you are conveying.

Thank you Covey, for adequately pointing out the error in my comprehension of this passage. Because there was the sound of wind on the DOP, it would seem that if every time one received the spirit, the sound of wind would be heard. But when stepping back and just reading this passage, it is clear that Jesus is letting Nicodemus know that just as there is a distinct sound of wind there will be a distinct sound made when one is born of the spirit.

I remain unconvinced that the sound of the spirit has to be tongues, because we see many examples where people were saved without speaking in tongues in Acts. For example, the Apostle Paul had three chances to say he spoke in tongues with his Damascus experience, and yet not once did he say that he spoke in tongues, in all three of his accounts, given to different people. Although, we know later in his writings he does mention speaking in tongues.

Could it be that calling on the name of the Lord and believing on the Lord could be the sound of the spirit in one being born, because we see that mentioned many times, where they "called on the name of the Lord and were saved."




The John 3:8 reference to sound of wind is where the inanimate sound comes from.



I wasn't trying to take liberties, because the sound of the wind that Jesus spoke of was also heard on the DOP and seemed to correlate. However I do see your point that Jesus was saying that just as the wind has a distinct sound, so does the sound of the spirit have a distinct sound when one is born again.

Could it be that calling on the name of the Lord and believing on the Lord could be the sound of the spirit in one being born, because we see that mentioned many times, where they "called on the name of the Lord and were saved."

It has been Modern Christendom that has substituted the word "Saved" for the Born Again conversion or New Birth. Being “Born again," “gennethe anothen" or “begotten from above," is for the conversion of a sinner. Jesus taught this conversion of a sinner only once in the Canonical Gospels. He did this so people would not twist his words.

The term "saved" is used 104 times in scriptures. The Greek word "sozo," which comes from the root word "sos" or "safe." It is attributed to Born Again believers being led by the Spirit. This misapplication of a term has caused great confusion. The new birth experience is a miracle of the moment. Whereas a Child of God's growth comes from being led by the Holy Spirit. The word he writes on our hearts; and the spirit he fills us with, is fulfilled by his saving grace.

Selah

[Johnson]

Originally Posted by covey

there is no contradiction in you. You are a troll. Goodbye.

You were very easy to defeat. But there again...
you did not have a prayer seeing what you were up against.

Anyone born of God will always be superior to anyone who is not.

if it makes you feel any better ...I have never been defeated.

[Johnson]

Originally Posted by CalledOut238

The word he writes on our hearts; and the spirit he fills us with, is fulfilled by his saving grace.

Selah

What is the first thing God wrote in your heart?

[Johnson]

God did not write anything in any of you're hearts.