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Originally Posted by Luke
I understand your point but I am not sure that I agree with it 100%. If the word that was translated fornication is a general term that can apply to all sexual misconduct why are there times when it is used along with other words that refer to other sexual feeds of misconduct? Such as:
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Why not simply use the same word both times unless they are meant to refer to something different?
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Because adultery is a very specific "crime" under the law and had Jesus used the same word this sentence would be meaningless.
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Also in the passage that ya'll keep referencing:
Galatians 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
Gal 5:20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
Notice again how according to your way of reasoning the Holy Ghost wasted space be using there words where only one would have been sufficient
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I didn't reference any verse.
Here is the Greek word Pornia
4202. πορνεία pŏrnĕia, por-ni´-ah; from 4203; harlotry (includ. adultery and incest); fig. idolatry:—fornication.
Strong, J. (2009). Vol. 1: A Concise Dictionary of the Words in the Greek Testament and The Hebrew Bible (59). Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software.
FORNICATION (Gk. porneía “unchastity”).*
Sexual intercourse performed outside the bonds of marriage, considered an immoral work of the flesh (Matt. 15:19 par.
Mark 7:21; cf.
Gal. 5:19;
Eph. 5:3;
Col. 3:5; RSV “unchastity, immorality”). The Old Testament depicts this as “harlotry” or “playing the harlot” (e.g.,
Gen. 38:24;
Deut. 22:21); as such the concept is used figuratively with regard to Israel’s abandonment of its covenant ideals (e.g.,
Isa. 23:17; Ezek. 16:26; cf.
Rev. 17:2, 4; 18:3; 19:2).
Myers, A. C. (1987). The Eerdmans Bible dictionary (391). Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans.
Beastiality is outside of biblical marriage
4518 πορνεία (porneia), ας (as), ἡ (hē): n.fem.; ≡ DBLHebr 2388, 2393, 2394, 9373; Str 4202; TDNT 6.579—LN 88.271 fornication, sexual immorality, sexual sin of a general kind, that includes many different behaviors (Mt 5:32; 15:19; 19:9;
Mk 7:21;
Jn 8:41; Ac 15:20; 1Co 6:18; 7:2; 2Co 12:21;
Gal 5:19;
Eph 5:3;
1Th 4:3)
4519 πορνεύω (porneuō): vb.; ≡ DBLHebr 2388; Str 4203; TDNT 6.579—LN 88.271 commit fornication, commit sexual immorality, of various kinds and behaviors (1Co 6:18; 10:8(2×);
Rev 2:14, 20; 17:2; 18:3, 9+;
Mk 10:19 v.r. NA26)
4520 πόρνη (pornē), ης (ēs), ἡ (hē): n.fem.; ≡ DBLHebr 2390; Str 4204; TDNT 6.579—LN 88.275 a prostitute (Mt 21:31;
Lk 15:30; 1Co 6:15;
Heb 11:31; Jas 2:25;
Rev 17:1; 19:2)
4521 πόρνος (pornos), ου (ou), ὁ (ho): n.masc.; ≡ Str 4205; TDNT 6.579—LN 88.274 sexually immoral person, one who commits sexual immorality (1Co 5:9–11; 6:9;
Eph 5:5; 1Ti 1:10;
Heb 12:16; 13:4;
Rev 21:8; 22:15+)
Swanson, J. (1997). Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains: Greek (New Testament) (electronic ed.). Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems, Inc.
IMMORALITY (Gk. porneía).† Sexual activity contrary to biblical principles. The RSV also translates the Greek term as “fornication” (so KJV throughout), “unchastity,” and “impurity.”
Paul is particularly concerned with such behavior, listing it among the works of the flesh (
Gal. 5:19). He views it as a deterrent to participation in the kingdom of God (
1 Cor. 6:9–10;
Gal. 5:19–21) and suggests marriage as a proper preventative to immoral sexuality (
1 Cor. 7:2). Specific concerns include incest (5:1) and prostitution (6:12–20; cf.
2 Cor. 12:21).
In the book of Revelation, immortality is used figuratively with regard to pagan practices, including idolatry and sacred prostitution (
Rev. 2:14, 20–21).
Myers, A. C. (1987). The Eerdmans Bible dictionary (518). Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans.
1Co 5:1 It is actually reported that there is
sexual immorality among you, and of a kind that is not tolerated even among pagans, for a man has his father's wife.
Pornea covers Incest
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My point in this is simply to show that if we do away with the moral law then there are certain things that are not clearly condemned in the new testament but if we say that the moral law does not apply to us today then we cannot go back to it later and show that something is wrong. To do so would make as much sense as an American to take the English law and attempt to say that something condemned there is condemned America as well sense America once was subject to British law.
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When did I say "do away with the moral law"?
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