Elections Foreshadow the Antichrist

[TK Burk]

Originally Posted by deacon blues

Earlier you said:

And then you turn around and say the 3 1/2 years is the Roman siege of Jerusalem. Which is it?

As I indicated in my post, this is another 3½ year period. And again as I said, "3½ years" is prophetic time-language that is found in other places such as in Elijah's time of drought.

[TK Burk]

Originally Posted by deacon blues

Your "solid examples" are a laundry list of instances where God uses an army as a means of judgment against Israel. No one argues with that. However no where do those examples use the language of Daniel 9:26, "the people of the prince that shall come." Looking at the chronology of Daniel 9:26 "Messiah" has already been cut off. Then "the people of the prince that shall come" is mentioned. Now if Christ has already come and been crucified, how can we call him the prince that shall come? This prince is obviously someone else, not Jesus. All of your "solid examples" can't address the chronology of this passage, nor the fact that God makes a distinction from the first 69 weeks to the 70th week and the "he" in 9:27 can't be Jesus based on the context and flow of the preceding verses. You offer that the 70th week is the so-called 3 1/2 years of Christ's ministry before crucifixion. You offer no "solid" evidence for what the leftover 3 1/2 years is all about besides supposing that it is the time between the crucifixion and the baptism of Cornelius---highly speculative, and perhaps based on a "feeling"?

What about the Matthew 24 chronology? What do you do with post-70 AD scriptures in Revelation that obviously mirror what Daniel prophesied about future events to come that foretells of "the beast" in Rev. 13 who has a mouth speaking great things, just like the man of Daniel 7, the man who makes war with the saints, just like Daniel 7, a man who emerges from a confederation of nations, just like Dan 7? What about the the 42 month authority the beast is given mentioned in post-70 AD Revelation 13? 1260 days, and time, times and half a time are all referenced in post 70-AD Revelation. How can these scriptures be prophetic, if these events had taken place some 20 years before John penned Revelation?

What about the resurrection foretold by Paul in his epsitles? What about Paul's reference to the man of sin and son of perdition? John's refrence to antichrist?

The 70 AD explanation of prophecy scriptures might seem plausible in some cases, and certainly some events related to the Roman destruction of Jerusalem in the first century were foretold, but it doesn't fit the body of work of prophecy that is in the Bible.

(BTW my less than convincing posts void of scriptures earlier is because I was responding lying flat on my back at 5:30 am trying to write on my mobile phone half awake)

DB, you really need to quit using all those Larkin and Scofield study notes! You've asked more stuff here than any Dispensationalist could ever prove with their Bible. But don't worry, Fulfilled Eschatology easily--and solidly--provides answers for all of these....

I will give you an answer for all of this tomorrow (Lord willing). Until then, I suggest you restudy what the Bible says about the OT being the example we use when determining NT Truth.

Blessings!