Interpretation with Tongues

[Pleasant1]

Is there anyone who can explain to me why tongues is so harped on when Paul said if there is no interpretation then we should be quiet. So, why is that the Holy Ghost is equated with speaking in tongues. Is it based on what happened on the day of Pentecost?

If so, why don't we harp on the other things that accompanied the tongues on that day? Wasn't it more of a sign to the unbeliever that God was working with the 152 souls, so that the educated men could marvel at what was happening, and know that there was no way that these uneducated people could speak in tongues so then God must be with them?

Why do we equate the Holy Ghost with tongues, but yet have no interpretation as Paul said we should? How are we to be edified when someone is speaking in tongues, if we don't know what is being said?

Doesn't the Word say, (paraphrased) None of this means anything if I don't have love? Or are we once again misinterpreting? I've read that you already Have the Holy Ghost just by believing in Christ. Not that the Holy Ghost is evidenced by speaking in tongues. It was one time because of what I mentioned before about the unbelievers but so was a lot of other stuff that came with the tongues on that day, but yet for some reason, we do not require clothing tongues of fire, or a mighty rushing wind to accompany the supposed tongues, or going to Jerusalem the way they did.

I really could use some help with this?