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Old 04-20-2007, 05:49 PM
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Baptizing For The Dead ?

Otherwise , what will they do who are baptized for the dead ,if the dead do not rise at all ,What then are they baptizing for the dead ? 1 COR. 15 :29 NKJV
Now I understand a large portion of 1 .Cor 15 deals with the resurrection of the dead ,and the effects of denial of the resurrection , and so forth.
But why does verse 29 mention baptizing for the dead ,surely the early church didn't vicariously baptize for dead people ?
Why is baptism for the dead mentioned in verse 29 ?
It does seems rather odd that this is mentioned in this passage of scripture.
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Old 04-20-2007, 06:04 PM
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I think Mormon's baptize for the dead.
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Old 04-20-2007, 06:07 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tamor View Post
I think Mormon's baptize for the dead.
Yes they do It is not a Christian pratice.Verse 29 is very odd to me.
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Old 04-20-2007, 06:26 PM
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Baptizing the dead can make the water dirty.........




Quote:
1 Cor 15:28 - 31 (KJV)
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
29 Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
30 And why stand we in jeopardy every hour?
31 I protest by your rejoicing which I have in Christ Jesus our Lord, I die daily.
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Old 04-20-2007, 06:29 PM
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REVDWW that's cute.
But does anybody know what this is doing in 1.COR 15 ?
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Old 04-20-2007, 06:30 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson View Post
REVDWW that's cute.
But does anybody know what this is doing in 1.COR 15 ?
Baptism was a popular rite among many religions. Apparently the Corinthian Church in addition to it's immorality had other issues.
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Old 04-20-2007, 06:33 PM
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BOOM do you mean baptism for the dead was a pagan ritual ,perhaps used in the pagan temple in Corinth ?
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Old 04-20-2007, 06:56 PM
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The "dead" in the context is referring to JESUS. They were baptized for HIM.
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Old 04-20-2007, 09:00 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
The "dead" in the context is referring to JESUS. They were baptized for HIM.
Say that's a thought ,I haven't thought about this.
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Old 04-20-2007, 09:11 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson View Post
Otherwise , what will they do who are baptized for the dead ,if the dead do not rise at all ,What then are they baptizing for the dead ? 1 COR. 15 :29 NKJV
Now I understand a large portion of 1 .Cor 15 deals with the resurrection of the dead ,and the effects of denial of the resurrection , and so forth.
But why does verse 29 mention baptizing for the dead ,surely the early church didn't vicariously baptize for dead people ?
Why is baptism for the dead mentioned in verse 29 ?
It does seems rather odd that this is mentioned in this passage of scripture.
Their were religious sects prominent in Israel at the time of Jesus.
The Pharisees & the Saducees.

The Saducees did not believe in a resurection and some of them who were getting saved were coming into the Church yet still holding forth that doctrine of no resurection.

Why were they being baptised if they didn't believe they were going to rise again?
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