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08-16-2015, 07:30 PM
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
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08-16-2015, 07:32 PM
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
Must I spoon feed you?
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?
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08-16-2015, 07:33 PM
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Unvaxxed Pureblood too
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
Myth 1: the KJV translators used "Easter" to refer to a pagan festival
Myth 2: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Ishtar" or "Astarte"
Myth 3: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Eostre"
"Easter" means "dawn"
Myth 4: "Easter" is tainted by residual pagan etymology
Myth 5: "Easter eggs" and "Easter bunnies" discredit Easter
Myth 6: The calculation of the date of Easter is pagan
"Pascha" means Easter today
Now that it has been demonstrated that "Easter" is a biblical word referring to the day to celebrate Christ's resurrection, it will be shown why the KJV is correct in translating "Πάσχα (Pascha)" as "Easter" at Acts 12:4. For starters, here are some modern Greek-English dictionaries showing that at least in modern Greek the primary meaning of "Pascha" is "Easter", not "Passover":....
http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j...99804247,d.cGU
Just read the rest of the post sir! |
Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?
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"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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08-16-2015, 07:34 PM
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Unvaxxed Pureblood too
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
Must I spoon feed you?
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Sean, you need that one teach you. 
__________________
"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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08-16-2015, 07:35 PM
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Join Date: Feb 2013
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.
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08-16-2015, 07:35 PM
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Banned
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Join Date: Feb 2013
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
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Well?
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08-16-2015, 07:36 PM
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Banned
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Join Date: Feb 2013
Posts: 23,543
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
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Read it
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08-16-2015, 07:36 PM
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Banned
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Join Date: Feb 2013
Posts: 23,543
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
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Read it
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08-16-2015, 07:37 PM
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Banned
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Join Date: Feb 2013
Posts: 23,543
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
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Read it
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08-16-2015, 07:38 PM
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Unvaxxed Pureblood too
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Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 40,356
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Re: "Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.
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Then you are proving that the KJV translators were translating the Greek word incorrectly? The Greek uses Πάσχα which means passover. Not sunrise. 
__________________
"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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