IT is the Holy Ghost!

[Scott Hutchinson]

So with God we can say there is a distinction in attributes ,but not in being since God is indivisble in being.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Brother Strange

"IT" is gramatically correct. I've used it many times in reference to not only the person, power and presence of the Holy Ghost but of the experience itself.

BTW we often refer to animals as "it"...I've even heard babies called "it"...probably because we don't know the gender at the time.

[Scott Hutchinson]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

What if the word Shekinah is used in the scriptures?

Is it ? I might be wrong but I don't recall seeing it.

Originally Posted by tbpew

Gender is a below realm distinction that does not have application in the Kingdom of God (that which is from ABOVE).

There is neither male nor female in Christ,; the body of God's anointing.

If we were to take that position, which I do not, we then be in error to refer to Jesus with ANY pronoun such as "He," "Him" but would neccessarily be a neuter form which would seriously detract from his personhood. He is a Man. In his sacrifical role as the Son of God, He, the man is the mediator between God and man.

Of neccessity, pronouns that depict Him in all of His reality must be conveyed in our language, regardless if its in the language of the Hotten Tots. If that language is remiss in this, we would soon lose our vision of Jesus to become difused in our thinking and opinion of Him.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

1Pe 1:11 ερευνωντες Searching 2045 V-PAP-NPM εις of 1519 PREP τινα what 5101 I-ASM η or 2228 PRT ποιον what manner 4169 I-ASM καιρον of time 2540 N-ASM εδηλου did signify 1213 V-IAI-3S το the 3588 T-NSN εν which was in 1722 PREP αυτοις them 846 P-DPM πνευμα Spirit 4151 N-NSN χριστου of Christ 5547 N-GSM προμαρτυρομενον when it testified beforehand 4303 V-PNP-NSN τα the 3588 T-APN εις 1519 PREP χριστον Christ 5547 N-ASM παθηματα sufferings 3804 N-APN και and 2532 CONJ τας the 3588 T-APF μετα that should follow 3326 PREP ταυτα 5023 D-APN δοξας glory. 1391 N-APF


Joh 1:32 και And 2532 CONJ εμαρτυρησεν bare record 3140 V-AAI-3S ιωαννης John 2491 N-NSM λεγων saying 3004 V-PAP-NSM οτι 3754 CONJ τεθεαμαι I saw 2300 V-RNI-1S το the 3588 T-ASN πνευμα Spirit 4151 N-ASN καταβαινον descending 2597 V-PAP-ASN ωσει like 5616 ADV περιστεραν a dove 4058 N-ASF εξ from 1537 PREP ουρανου heaven 3772 N-GSM και and 2532 CONJ εμεινεν it abode 3306 V-AAI-3S επ upon 1909 PREP αυτον him. 846 P-ASM

Daniel,

In neither of the verses you quoted did the translator translate as you assert they did. They did not mistranslate the word 'to','ho', or 'o' because those words just aren't there. In each verse they used a pronoun they thought was appropriate for the antecedent noun, a pronoun which is implied in the verb itself.



You may see a creative license with the KJV translators but that license is taken with other translators as well.

Do you think the Spirit of God has a gender? The NAS translators chose to use the pronoun, he, but the pronoun, he, is not in the Greek text.

You are correct. Daniel does not know what he is talking about here.

[Rico]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Same reason we don't say the Son is the Father. There is a distinction. The Spirit is not the Father. The Spirit is the Spirit OF the Father usually. Sometimes the bible ascribes personal function to the Spirit, but that is probably because Spirit is the very essence of being OF the Father and when the Father does something He does it BY His Spirit.

The Spirit is not the Father? Does not the Bible say it was the Spirit that overshadowed Mary and caused her to conceive? That would most certainly make the Spirit the Father, Prax.

Originally Posted by Praxeas

BTW we often refer to animals as "it"...I've even heard babies called "it"...probably because we don't know the gender at the time.

True...

and oft times when we DO know the gender.

Originally Posted by Rico

The Spirit is not the Father? Does not the Bible say it was the Spirit that overshadowed Mary and caused her to conceive? That would most certainly make the Spirit the Father, Prax.

When the Jehovah's Witness speak of the Spirit, they see it as God's way of doing things. A force, if you will.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson

If we call the Holy Ghost or He does it matter ?We know that is the Spirit of Jesus Christ.The notion of three beings or persons of God is just a theory anyways.

Is the Holy Ghost a WHAT or a WHO or both? I think we need to understand that the Spirit is the Spirit OF Christ, not someone other than Christ nor something other than Christ.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Rico

The Spirit is not the Father? Does not the Bible say it was the Spirit that overshadowed Mary and caused her to conceive? That would most certainly make the Spirit the Father, Prax.

Did you read what I just said? Spirit is God's essence of Being. He does not have physical arms. So when HE does things He does things BY His Spirit. Again, Spirit is called the Spirit OF the Father. Spirit is WHAT God is.