How do you almost receive a gift?

[Jason B]

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[Jason B]

Originally Posted by houston

The stammering lips in the book of Isaiah is not what you find in pentecostal services.

True and neither are the "tongues" in many services what you find in the book of Acts.

[Jason B]

Originally Posted by MissBrattified

How do you mark the difference between stammering lips and speaking in tongues? At what point does "stammering lips" become "speaking in tongues?"

The fact that we as Pentecostals lump the two together is good evidence that we are quite confused about what "speaking in tongues" is, biblically speaking.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

I think the connection is made based on Paul using Isaiah 28:11 as a stepping stone to discuss the issue of speaking in tongues in the Corinthian church.

1 Cor 14
20 Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.
21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

Paul used Is 28:11 as a text about speaking in tongues, and since the Pentecostal churches "generally" believe tongues is the evidence of receiving the Spirit, thus the case is made that Is 28:11 is a prophecy about speaking in tongues and speaking in tongues was first done in Acts 2. Thus, Is 28:11 was fulfilled in Acts 2.

Also, right after Is 28:11, verse 12 says "This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear."

Given that the "rest" (ref: Heb 4:10, Matt 11:28), in NT terms is salvation (a.k.a receving the Holy Ghost), it is thus inferred that the "rest" prophesied in Is 28:12 is the coming of the Holy Spirit in the new covenant, which was also fulfilled in Acts 2.

So, when Is 28:11- 12 is read, it is understood as the rest (salvation a.k.a Holy Ghost) which God gives with the evidence of speaking in tongues, first fulfilled in Acts 2.

Moreover, in verse 16 of that same Isaiah chapter, we read:
Is 28:16 Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste.

Paul and Peter in Rom 10:11 and 1 Peter 2:6 respectively also teach that NT salvation is the fulfillment of Is 28:16. Thus, when you tie it all together, you should see why some teach Isaiah 28:11-16 as a prophecy that was fulfilled by way of the new covenant established in Acts 2.

my $0.02

This is how I believe and teach it!

[Jason B]

Originally Posted by Sasha

But is that Biblical? Where do we see it in scripture where someone 'almost' received the Holy Ghost? And since it's a gift, how can one 'almost' receive it?

Luke 11:13

Oh wait, never mind......let's not cloud the issue with scripture.

[Dordrecht]

There are Biblical examples of people being 'close to accepting' Christ.

Where in the Bible?

[Jason B]

Pretty interesting thread in regard to this topic.......

http://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com...ad.php?t=33139

[MissBrattified]

Originally Posted by Dordrecht

Where in the Bible?

Acts 26:27-28 "King Agrippa, believest thou the prophets? I know that thou believest. Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian."

[Hoovie]

Originally Posted by Jermyn Davidson

It's a religious colloquialism that is based on questionable theology, and that's me being careful and polite.

I think I am with Jermyn on this... Though I should really look that word up first!

[n david]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

I think the connection is made based on Paul using Isaiah 28:11 as a stepping stone to discuss the issue of speaking in tongues in the Corinthian church.

1 Cor 14
20 Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.
21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

Paul used Is 28:11 as a text about speaking in tongues, and since the Pentecostal churches "generally" believe tongues is the evidence of receiving the Spirit, thus the case is made that Is 28:11 is a prophecy about speaking in tongues and speaking in tongues was first done in Acts 2. Thus, Is 28:11 was fulfilled in Acts 2.

Also, right after Is 28:11, verse 12 says "This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear."

Given that the "rest" (ref: Heb 4:10, Matt 11:28), in NT terms is salvation (a.k.a receving the Holy Ghost), it is thus inferred that the "rest" prophesied in Is 28:12 is the coming of the Holy Spirit in the new covenant, which was also fulfilled in Acts 2.

So, when Is 28:11- 12 is read, it is understood as the rest (salvation a.k.a Holy Ghost) which God gives with the evidence of speaking in tongues, first fulfilled in Acts 2.

Moreover, in verse 16 of that same Isaiah chapter, we read:
Is 28:16 Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste.

Paul and Peter in Rom 10:11 and 1 Peter 2:6 respectively also teach that NT salvation is the fulfillment of Is 28:16. Thus, when you tie it all together, you should see why some teach Isaiah 28:11-16 as a prophecy that was fulfilled by way of the new covenant established in Acts 2.

my $0.02

That's a good description of how it's taken out of context and misapplied.