I find it hard to read KJV now. Some of the words just don't seem to fit, or seem different from what they use to. When I do my daily reading I use the NIV.
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If my people, which are called by my name, shall humble themselves, and pray, and seek my face, and turn from their wicked ways; then will I hear from heaven, and will forgive their sin, and will heal their land.
2 Chronicles 7:14 KJV
He hath shewed thee, O man, what is good; and what doth the LORD require of thee, but to do justly, and to love mercy, and to walk humbly with thy God? Micah 6:8 KJV
Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is. 1 John 3:2 KJV
I am true to the King James Version meaning that I perfer it before all the other versions of the bible. I would think King James would have had many controversies from others when he wrote the bible; and I would think if he was gay then there's a good possibility he would have left out the issues of Sodom and Gamorrah and God's wrath coming down on that city of crazed out gays. This story makes gays sound like animals that could not be stopped; or how about the book of Romans where it talks about God gave them over to their own lust; where men burned with men and were considered Reprobate. No reprobate could write these words in the KJV. I would have never thought to have questioned his sexuality as to being gay and this is not a answer to your question; just a opinion to the question. I wonder what version you prefer and why?
I am true to the King James Version meaning that I perfer it before all the other versions of the bible. I would think King James would have had many controversies from others when he wrote the bible; and I would think if he was gay then there's a good possibility he would have left out the issues of Sodom and Gamorrah and God's wrath coming down on that city of crazed out gays. This story makes gays sound like animals that could not be stopped; or how about the book of Romans where it talks about God gave them over to their own lust; where men burned with men and were considered Reprobate. No reprobate could write these words in the KJV. I would have never thought to have questioned his sexuality as to being gay and this is not a answer to your question; just a opinion to the question. I wonder what version you prefer and why?
KJ did not write the bible, of course. He commissioned it to be translated. His being gay should not be a reason to reject the KJV.
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There is One God. This one God reveals Himself distinctly as Father, Son and Holy Ghost.
The Son is God himself in a human form or "God manifested in the flesh" (1Tim 3:16)
Every sinner must repent of their sins.
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i actually prefer the king james for one reason, i do however read the message for devotions, i learned all my memory verses in the kjv, i have to stick to it or i wont know when they misquote the holy word a god, lol
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A product of a pentecostal raisin, I am a hard man, just ask my children
I don't think King James was gay. In most cases human sexuality is more like a spectrum than a fixed catagory. For many people (psychologists say the vast majority) their "preference" or "interest" fluctuates periodically. So, King James might have had his periodic or perhaps even brief "interest" in both areas. That doesn't mean he was "given over" to this sin.
For many people (psychologists say the vast majority) their "preference" or "interest" fluctuates periodically.
If MOST people swing that way, then I am in the minority. I NEVER ever felt any urge to prefer or show interest in other men. WHEW!
Sorry, I do not believe that claim you referred to.
__________________ ...MY THOUGHTS, ANYWAY.
"Many Christians do not try to understand what was written in a verse in the Bible. Instead they approach the passage to prove what they already believe."
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