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  #51  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:39 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

If we keep this up we will return this back to an "Apostolic" forum.
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  #52  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:39 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

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Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
I do not believe it is necessary there already a pattern given I think it is understood.
I say all the time folks are saved with out mentioning tongues. Because all who receive the Spirit speaks in tongues it is a given.
Thank you Elder.
I appreciate this discussion.
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  #53  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:41 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

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The Bible does not record the Phillipian jailer nor anyone there at his conversion to speak in tongues.

Faith without works is dead, which is why the Bible records the jailer's baptism, upon the confession of his faith.
Where does the Bible specifically record that the Phillipian Jailer repented (methuo) of his sins?

Using your same criteria above....one no longer has to repent to be saved???

Oh, I won't go into how the Bible specifically designates repentance as "works"...But never calls tongue-talking a "work!"

Ac. 26.20: "......that they should repent, turn to God, and do works befitting repentance."

Apparently Paul never received the memo on "Finished Work" Doctrine
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  #54  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:42 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

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Originally Posted by Jermyn Davidson View Post
Thank you Elder.
I appreciate this discussion.
I think too much emphasis is placed on tongues and not enough on the Baptism of the Holy Ghost itself. When folks recieve the Holy Ghost they speak in tongues. I cannot count the times I have personally seen new people come into a Pentecostal church that know nothing about Pentecostal doctrine and recieve the Holy Ghost the first service speaking in tongues without any preconcieved ideas. it just happens everytime.
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  #55  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:43 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

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Where does the Bible specifically record that the Phillipian Jailer repented (methuo) of his sins?

Using your same criteria above....one no longer has to repent to be saved???

Oh, I won't go into how the Bible specifically designates repentance as "works"...But never calls tongue-talking a "work!"

Ac. 26.20: "......that they should repent, turn to God, and do works befitting repentance."

Apparently Paul never received the memo on "Finished Work" Doctrine
Excellent thought.
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  #56  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:49 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

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Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
I think too much emphasis is placed on tongues and not enough on the Baptism of the Holy Ghost itself. When folks recieve the Holy Ghost they speak in tongues. I cannot count the times I have personally seen new people come into a Pentecostal church that know nothing about Pentecostal doctrine and recieve the Holy Ghost the first service speaking in tongues without any preconcieved ideas. it just happens everytime.
Amen! No one walks into a shoe store asking for the "tongue" of the shoe, or gift. They ask for the shoe (gift) & the tongue automatically comes with the shoe!

Ask for the gift & the tongue automatically comes w/ it.

IMO, an undue emphasis on tongues creates pressure & stress in one's mind....the exact opposite of faith (teaching an apologetics seminar on these very issues right now).

Last edited by rdp; 12-17-2012 at 12:53 AM.
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  #57  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:53 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

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Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
If we keep this up we will return this back to an "Apostolic" forum.
Not holding my breath .
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  #58  
Old 12-17-2012, 12:58 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

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Originally Posted by rdp View Post
Where does the Bible specifically record that the Phillipian Jailer repented (methuo) of his sins?

Using your same criteria above....one no longer has to repent to be saved???

Oh, I won't go into how the Bible specifically designates repentance as "works"...But never calls tongue-talking a "work!"

Ac. 26.20: "......that they should repent, turn to God, and do works befitting repentance."

Apparently Paul never received the memo on "Finished Work" Doctrine

The Bible states that the jailer had the Word of the Lord spoken to him and he and his household were baptized... and rejoiced because he and his household believed in God.

It's a stretch to believe that the jailer and his household spoke in tongues at this encounter.

It's also a stretch to teach that the Baptism of the Holy Spirit is a separate experience from being born again.

Faith is a stretch.
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  #59  
Old 12-17-2012, 01:04 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
I think too much emphasis is placed on tongues and not enough on the Baptism of the Holy Ghost itself. When folks recieve the Holy Ghost they speak in tongues. I cannot count the times I have personally seen new people come into a Pentecostal church that know nothing about Pentecostal doctrine and recieve the Holy Ghost the first service speaking in tongues without any preconcieved ideas. it just happens everytime.
How would you emphasize to the new believer in Christ the imperativeness of being baptized in the Holy Spirit, without emphasizing speaking tongues in a way that would pervert the Gospel in the mind of the new believer?
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  #60  
Old 12-17-2012, 05:46 AM
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

The passage doesn't prove salvation is a prequisite for speaking in tongues.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dordrecht View Post
The Bible must be an absurd book then.

Here's an absurd scripture:

Mark 16:17, "And these signs shall follow them that believe; <--------
In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues."

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