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  #41  
Old 03-05-2007, 10:33 AM
Chan
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Originally Posted by Newman View Post
I had the opportunity to speak to two different missionaries to two different Muslim areas of the world this past month.

I asked them both similar questions and got different perspectives and noticed different results....

1. What does it mean to the Muslim people for a woman to be uncovered?
Same answer. It says that she is immoral and it brings dishonor to her family... (No equation with submission).

2. Do the missionary women wear head coverings?
Missionary A. NO- People understand that she is a Christian rather than a Muslim.

Missionary B. YES- It is considered immoral not to wear a head covering.

3. Who have you been reaching?

Missionary A. Interestingly enough, the church is made up of foreigners in the area....

Missionary B. The Muslim people

See 1 Corinthians 9:19-22. Food for thought.
Since Muslims tend to consider unconvered women to be dressing like ***** (or, to put it more delicately, to be immodest), is immodesty a message that Christianity wants to send when trying to reach Muslims with the gospel?
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  #42  
Old 03-05-2007, 11:39 AM
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Michael The Disciple Michael The Disciple is offline
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Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
The ONLY defined covering in 1 Cor. 11 is long (let her hair grow) hair!!!!! No hat in this chapter whatsoever. The covering is given by God not man.
The NATURAL covering is given by God. The covering of which Paul writes is applicable only when a woman prays or prophesies. Can she at will choose each time she prays or prophesies to put her hair on or take it off?

I read some apocraphyl literature years ago that showed the reason woman began originally wearing veils was as a sign to the evil angels that they were faithful to their husbands and were not interested in them. Wish I could find that again.
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  #43  
Old 03-05-2007, 07:04 PM
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Steve Epley Steve Epley is offline
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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
The NATURAL covering is given by God. The covering of which Paul writes is applicable only when a woman prays or prophesies. Can she at will choose each time she prays or prophesies to put her hair on or take it off?

I read some apocraphyl literature years ago that showed the reason woman began originally wearing veils was as a sign to the evil angels that they were faithful to their husbands and were not interested in them. Wish I could find that again.
Paul wrote the first 14 verses and HE defined the above covering he wrote about I don't need an apocraphyl literature I have Paul the author. The governing was in church women were to have their head covered for various reasons and he defined it as long(let her hair grow) hair NOT a hat!
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  #44  
Old 03-05-2007, 07:14 PM
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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
Can she at will choose each time she prays or prophesies to put her hair on or take it off?
She can wear it like a veil or not wear it like a veil...In other words she can pile it up on her head or she can let it hang down
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  #45  
Old 03-05-2007, 07:41 PM
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Originally Posted by Praxeas View Post
She can wear it like a veil or not wear it like a veil...In other words she can pile it up on her head or she can let it hang down
You are kidding of course?
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  #46  
Old 03-05-2007, 07:44 PM
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Praxeas Praxeas is offline
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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
You are kidding of course?
You asked a question right? if her hair is a veil like covering, the there is one possible way she can wear it like a veil only when praying...wear it down as opposed to up. No, I was not kidding.

Second of all there is not one thing in what Paul wrote to suggest she should remove her covering when not praying or prophesying...His only point was that she should be covered while praying or prophesying. So the standard argument about how she would remove her veil if it is her hair is a logical fallacy that assumes something Paul did not write to begin with
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  #47  
Old 03-06-2007, 11:18 AM
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JN Anderson JN Anderson is offline
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Originally Posted by Chan View Post
Since Muslims tend to consider unconvered women to be dressing like ***** (or, to put it more delicately, to be immodest), is immodesty a message that Christianity wants to send when trying to reach Muslims with the gospel?
They also believe the Koran holds authoritative precedence over the Bible. Should we compromise that too? Geez. Bad logic.
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  #48  
Old 03-06-2007, 11:18 AM
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JN Anderson JN Anderson is offline
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Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
The ONLY defined covering in 1 Cor. 11 is long (let her hair grow) hair!!!!! No hat in this chapter whatsoever. The covering is given by God not man.
I totally agree.
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  #49  
Old 03-06-2007, 11:21 AM
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JN Anderson JN Anderson is offline
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Originally Posted by Felicity View Post
I'd like to see Newman and Sab come to a conclusion re the use/need of a veil/head covering. Can there be agreement regarding this matter even if we can't find it re hair cutting?

Why is this SUCH a controversial & confusing issue? LOL. Does it really need to be?

It's been debated, argued and discussed ever since I can remember with hardly half a dozen people (if that many) reaching agreement on the several points Paul made in his letter to the Corinthians.
Felicity:

I have no intention of gettig into a flame war. I will debate this issue though, if anyone is willing. However, we may have wore that horse out. Also, my main point has been that Newman recognize that hair is a pluasible subject, as a material headdress is, in the first part of 1 Corinthians 11. I have listed at least three references to prove that.
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  #50  
Old 03-06-2007, 11:59 AM
Chan
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Originally Posted by Sabellius View Post
They also believe the Koran holds authoritative precedence over the Bible. Should we compromise that too? Geez. Bad logic.
Who said anything about compromise? When is being MODEST ever a compromise? The Bible teaches women to wear modest apparel. The way Muslim women dress (covered essentially from head to toe) would certainly fall within the realm of "modest."

You might want to re-think your nonsensical position.
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