Tongues interpretation - Rapture/Return

[notofworks]

Originally Posted by Sam

I'm older than some here so my memories of tongues and interpretation go back to 1955 or 1956.

So does anyone here consider the possibility that "Tongues and the Interpretation of Tongues" isn't at all like we see it in pentecostalism?

[Hoovie]

Originally Posted by notofworks

So does anyone here consider the possibility that "Tongues and the Interpretation of Tongues" isn't at all like we see it in pentecostalism?

Differing opinions within Pentecostalism though, do you acknowledge that?

What is indisputable both in today's utterances of tongues and in scripture? They are meant to be given for edification of the body and when interpreted they are equal to prophesy and should be judged for content - not accepted at face value.

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by notofworks

So does anyone here consider the possibility that "Tongues and the Interpretation of Tongues" isn't at all like we see it in pentecostalism?

I wouldn't say "... at all like" or unlike ... but I think the ancients had a bit of a different approach to the matter and thus had a different experience, at least outwardly at times.

First of all, the events as described in Acts 2 (KNOWN human languages) has never been reproduced in the 20th (and now 21st) Century outpouring. I know, I know... several of you will want to dispute that, but prove it first, okay?

Paul seems to have observed something other than the Acts 2, type of phenomena when he mentions "the tongues of angels..." (1 Corinthians 13:1). Of course, there are others who will insist that this was more of a literary use of hyperbole in that context and I honestly don't have a good argument against that.

It just "seems" to me that there were a lot of ancient "prophecies" and other "religious ecstasies" that were described in a way that makes it sound a lot like a "modern" Pentecostal experience. This is why I am inclined to see all of the "Shockamoo" and stuff as being an authentic and very ancient experience and not something that was just "invented" at Topeka or Azusa Street.

The ancient Christians, in all likelihood, had a rather broad spectrum of experiences - something akin to the "Charismatic Movement" that reaches across many denominations. We're probably a little too quick to demand that everybody fall out in a heap or to operate our altars as mosh pits.

[Sam]

Originally Posted by Hoovie

...
What is indisputable both in today's utterances of tongues and in scripture? They are meant to be given for edification of the body and when interpreted they are equal to prophesy and should be judged for content - not accepted at face value.

I also see it that way.
That is what I was trying to say in my post.
Treat a message in tongues and interpretation or a prophecy like you would a sermon, Bible lesson, or testimony i.e. compare it to the written Word and accept what is good, reject what is false, file away for future confirmation which you can't find as Scriptural or anti-Scriptural.

[Digging4Truth]

Originally Posted by notofworks

So does anyone here consider the possibility that "Tongues and the Interpretation of Tongues" isn't at all like we see it in pentecostalism?

We are studying on the gifts of the spirit right now and I think it would be very helpful if there were more descriptive information on how the gifts were manifest in the times of the early church. We mostly just have descriptive titles with not much information on how those gifts were manifest.

[Sam]

Originally Posted by notofworks

So does anyone here consider the possibility that "Tongues and the Interpretation of Tongues" isn't at all like we see it in pentecostalism?

We find our NT teaching about the use and administrative functioning of the gifts of the Spirit, specifically tongues and interpretation and prophecy, in the book of 1 Corinthians. I think this is because there were problems in that church with the way the gifts were being handled and the Apostle Paul tried to straighten things out. He had planted the Church in Corinth. That story is in Acts 18:1-17 and he was probably there from September AD 51 until he went to Ephesus in February AD 53. What we call our book of 1 Corinthians may be made up of two letters he wrote to them in response to letter(s) from them. The first letter (if there were more than one) was probably written the autumn of AD 55, reference Acts 19:22.

Corinth was a notoriously immoral city. At that time it had a population of about 200,000 plus 1.5 million slaves. It was a commercial center plus the sports center of the ancient world. In the temple of Acro-Corinthus there were 1000 priestesses who served as prostitutes. Near Corinth was the Oracle of Delphi. People would consult the Oracle to receive divine guidance. The inquirer would undergo purification rites and present sacrificial offerings. Then the inquirer would be brought into the presence of a young woman, a priestess of Apollo said to possess a spirit of python (said to have been slain by Apollo). A male prophet of the temple would receive the question from the inquirer and present it to the priestess. Then the young woman would go into a state of ecstasy and speak out unrecognizable words. The priest would then translate or interpret those words for the inquirer. So, the people in Corinth were familiar with glossalalia or speaking with tongues. That may be a reason that gift was so prevalent in the Corinthian Assembly and Paul felt the need to regulate it. 1 Corinthians 12:2 speaks about how in the past the Corinthians were "carried away" by dumb idols. That may be a reference to the pagan speaking with tongues.

It is my opinion that modern day speaking with tongues, prophecy, and interpretation of tongues is the same as first century experiences. Both modern day and first century experiences are influenced by and reflect the culture of the people doing the speaking. Today, we hear "King James English" used in prophecy and interpretation by some because they think God talks that way even though the King James Bible wasn't given to us (by trinitarians) until 1611. (By the way, now that we are in 2011, we (both trinitarians and oneness) are celebrating the 500th anniversary of the KJV.)

[Timmy]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Im convinced real tongues and interpretation aren't intended to teach doctrine but to exhort people to have faith or turn/return to God

Why is that, do you suppose? Because we already have the Bible to give us all we need to know?

[DAII]

Originally Posted by notofworks

So does anyone here consider the possibility that "Tongues and the Interpretation of Tongues" isn't at all like we see it in pentecostalism?

I think the distinctions between Charismatics and Pentecostals ... are interesting when it comes to gifts ...

Some we know have made a distinction between evidentiary tongues and the tongues we find in 1 Cor. 12-14 ... I don't know if the argument is compelling ...

but I personally have some questions as to the purpose of tongues and interpretation and the gift of prophecy in light of what we've been taught ....

I find the beginning verses of 1 Cor. 14 to add to those questions ...

Pursue love, yet desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy.2 For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God; for no one understands, but in his spirit he speaks mysteries.3 But one who prophesies speaks to men for edification and exhortation and consolation.4 One who speaks in a tongue edifies himself; but one who prophesies edifies the church.

My observations:

1. Surely, Paul believes love is the ultimate fruit .... manifestation of the Spirit
but he then say we are earnestly desire the gifts but especially ...

that we may prophesy ... no, not desiring tongues or the other gifts ... but rather prophesy. I do not see this in the OP movement.

I find this to be a direct link and in harmony to Joel's prophecy .... where we find sons, daughters, men, women PROPHESYING as they are overwhelmed by the pouring out of the Spirit.

2. Tongues are unto God ... and clearly says these tongues do not speak unto man. (verse 2) When the Spirit is poured out on Pentecost we find those filled speaking or proclaiming the wonders and signs of God ... or his mighty deeds (Joel 2 and Acts 2)

They remark clearly " ...we hear them in our own tongues speaking of the mighty deeds of God.”12 And they all continued in amazement and great perplexity, saying to one another, “What does this mean?”

This seems to be in line with Paul saying that he who speaks in tongues speaks in mysteries.
In the case of Cornelius and his household .... they speaks in tongues ... BUT LUKE also includes ... and they MAGNIFIED/EXALTED GOD.

Acts 10:42 - For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God.

There seems to be element of praise in this prophetic and spiritual manifestation.

3. Paul speaks that the function of prophesying is to edify the church, exhort and comfort ... a more direct speaking from God towards man ... specifically BELIEVERS... yet in the OP and Pentecostal paradigm this seems to be the function of tongues and interpretation.

??????

[Revelationist]

Aaron Thames said God told him that the Rapture would happen before he died.... another uh oh.... 88 reasons also ....

[TJJJ]

Originally Posted by shag

I have a sincere question.

A few months ago, there was an interpretation of tongues where I attend, that was along the lines of "I will be coming quickly to take out a people that has made themselves ready", or something of that nature.

My question is this: Are there others that have heard a similiar "tongues interpretation", and if so, how many years BACK have you heard/been hearing those interpretations? A long time, or just in the last few years, or months ?

(Not looking to debate eschatology at all, but just wanting to simply find out how many years this interpretation has been given, as an "interpretation of tongues"?