The Sabbath Day, Should You Keep or not Keep?

[Aquila]

To illustrate how referencing the 10 Commandments as recorded in the Torah can be called either "the book of the law" or the "10 Commandments", or even "the words of Moses" I will present another image...

The image blow is of the Torah. This Torah is opened to the passage containing the Aseret ha-Dibrot (10 Commandments).

Are we looking at the "book of the law" ("words of Moses") or are we looking at the "10 Commandments"?



Answer key:

A.) We are looking at the Torah ("book of the law" or "words of Moses")
B.) We are looking at the Aseret ha-Dibrot (the 10 Commandments)

Which one is it? A or B?

In this instance, all of the above would be correct.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Aquila

One has to understand that it is the Torah that is being referenced throughout the NT. The 10 commandments of God were recorded by Moses in the Torah (book of the law). And as a result, when referencing any of the 10 commandments recorded in the law of Moses, the terms can be used interchangeably.

But in actuality, they are distinct. If one is strictly referencing the 10 Commandments that were carved into stone by the very finger of God, one cannot use the terms "book of the law" or "10 Commandments" interchangeably. To illustrate this, I will ask one simple question with an image to assist with conceptualization.

Assuming that we are looking at a picture of the very tablets inscribed by God Himself (prior to their being broken), is the image below the "book of the law" (the Torah) or is it the "10 Commandments" (Aseret ha-Dibrot)?



Answer key:

A.) Torah. (book of the law)
B.) Aseret ha-Dibrot. (Ten Commandments)

I see no practical distinction noted in the entire bible that makes a difference one way or the other. God's law is referring to Torah or the tables. It's all God and Moses brought it so he is referenced as well.

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I see no practical distinction noted in the entire bible that makes a difference one way or the other. God's law is referring to Torah or the tables. It's all God and Moses brought it so he is referenced as well.

However, among the Jews the "Torah" is the "book of the law". The Torah, or Jewish written law, consists of the five books of the Hebrew Bible. While the Aseret ha-D'varim (Ten Commandments/Ten Statements) were copied by Moses and placed in two different places in the Torah, they are distinct from the Torah. In fact, the 603 additional laws added by Moses can each be categorized under one of the Ten Commandments. In other words, the Torah was designed to teach the nation of Israel how God wanted them to obey the Ten Commandments. In fact, this is why when the Torah was completed, Moses gave it to the Levites and commanded that they place this law "beside" or "by the side of" the ark as "a witness against you".

Deuteronomy 31:24-26 (ESV)
9 Then Moses wrote this law and gave it to the priests, the sons of Levi, who carried the ark of the covenant of the Lord, and to all the elders of Israel....24 When Moses had finished writing the words of this law in a book to the very end, 25 Moses commanded the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the Lord, 26 “Take this Book of the Law and put it by the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against you.

It should be noted that the Ten Commandments (the testimony) were secured in the ark. Thus this "book of the law" (what you typically hear me call the "Law of Moses") was "added" because of transgressions:

Galatians 3:19 (ESV)
Why then the law (meaning Torah)? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary.

The Torah (or Law of Moses) was added to the 10 Commandments because of the people's transgressions against God's morality as expressed in the Ten Commandments. Most forget that the "book of the law" (Law of Moses) was confirmed 39+ years AFTER the Sinai covenant:

Deuteronomy 1:3, 5 (ESV)
3 In the fortieth year, on the first day of the eleventh month, Moses spoke to the people of Israel according to all that the Lord had given him in commandment to them,...
5 Beyond the Jordan, in the land of Moab, Moses undertook to explain this law, saying,

Think about this, the Ten Commandments were in play 39+ years before the Torah was written, completed, and delivered to the people by Moses.

Would you also believe that the Ten Commandments were in play prior to Moses and the writing of the Torah? When God was speaking to Isaac, we read:

Genesis 26:4-5 (ESV)
4 I will multiply your offspring as the stars of heaven and will give to your offspring all these lands. And in your offspring all the nations of the earth shall be blessed, 5 because Abraham obeyed my voice and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.”

What were these "commandments, statutes, and laws"? They were what we later see inscribed by the very finger of God in stone on Sinai. This law forbade having other Gods, idolatry, blasphemy, contained a Sabbath (established at creation), the command to honor one's parents, and prohibitions on stealing, killing, adultery, false witness, and coveting.

As mentioned before, the stone tablets of the Testimony were placed inside the ark. The "book of the law" (Torah) was placed on the side of the ark as a witness against the people. One thing sitting beside another thing is not one thing, but two things, even when they are jointly applicable. The "book of the law" is the binding legal document of between God and Israel, also known as the Moab covenant.

Please note, there are even TWO different covenants relating to these laws. You have the Sinai Covenant wherein the Israelites agreed to live by the Ten Commandments. And you have the Moab Covenant wherein the Israelites agreed to live by the "book of the law" (or Torah, aka, the Law of Moses).

I cannot understand how anyone cannot see the distinction between the two. The truth is, most do "see" the distinction I'm drawing. They simply have determined to willfully REFUSE to accept that the two laws are distinct.

Sinai Covenant: The Sinai covenant is the covenant made between God and his people on Mt. Sinai, according to the Bible. The Israelites received God's Ten Commandments and agreed to keep them in exchange for his love, protection, and special treatment.

Moab Covenant: These are the words of the covenant which the Lord commanded Moses to make with the sons of Israel in the land of Moab, besides the covenant which He had made with them at Horeb.

So, these laws are clearly distinct in that they even lay the foundation of two different covenants.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Aquila

However, among the Jews the "Torah" is the "book of the law". The Torah, or Jewish written law, consists of the five books of the Hebrew Bible. While the Aseret ha-D'varim (Ten Commandments/Ten Statements) were copied by Moses and placed in two different places in the Torah, they are distinct from the Torah. In fact, the 603 additional laws added by Moses can each be categorized under one of the Ten Commandments. In other words, the Torah was designed to teach the nation of Israel how God wanted them to obey the Ten Commandments. In fact, this is why when the Torah was completed, Moses gave it to the Levites and commanded that they place this law "beside" or "by the side of" the ark as "a witness against you".

Deuteronomy 31:24-26 (ESV)
9 Then Moses wrote this law and gave it to the priests, the sons of Levi, who carried the ark of the covenant of the Lord, and to all the elders of Israel....24 When Moses had finished writing the words of this law in a book to the very end, 25 Moses commanded the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the Lord, 26 “Take this Book of the Law and put it by the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against you.

It should be noted that the Ten Commandments (the testimony) were secured in the ark. Thus this "book of the law" (what you typically hear me call the "Law of Moses") was "added" because of transgressions:

Galatians 3:19 (ESV)
Why then the law (meaning Torah)? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary.

The Torah (or Law of Moses) was added to the 10 Commandments because of the people's transgressions against God's morality as expressed in the Ten Commandments. Most forget that the "book of the law" (Law of Moses) was confirmed 39+ years AFTER the Sinai covenant:

Deuteronomy 1:3, 5 (ESV)
3 In the fortieth year, on the first day of the eleventh month, Moses spoke to the people of Israel according to all that the Lord had given him in commandment to them,...
5 Beyond the Jordan, in the land of Moab, Moses undertook to explain this law, saying,

Think about this, the Ten Commandments were in play 39+ years before the Torah was written, completed, and delivered to the people by Moses.

Would you also believe that the Ten Commandments were in play prior to Moses and the writing of the Torah? When God was speaking to Isaac, we read:

Genesis 26:4-5 (ESV)
4 I will multiply your offspring as the stars of heaven and will give to your offspring all these lands. And in your offspring all the nations of the earth shall be blessed, 5 because Abraham obeyed my voice and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.”

What were these "commandments, statutes, and laws"? They were what we later see inscribed by the very finger of God in stone on Sinai. This law forbade having other Gods, idolatry, blasphemy, contained a Sabbath (established at creation), the command to honor one's parents, and prohibitions on stealing, killing, adultery, false witness, and coveting.

As mentioned before, the stone tablets of the Testimony were placed inside the ark. The "book of the law" (Torah) was placed on the side of the ark as a witness against the people. One thing sitting beside another thing is not one thing, but two things, even when they are jointly applicable. The "book of the law" is the binding legal document of between God and Israel, also known as the Moab covenant.

Please note, there are even TWO different covenants relating to these laws. You have the Sinai Covenant wherein the Israelites agreed to live by the Ten Commandments. And you have the Moab Covenant wherein the Israelites agreed to live by the "book of the law" (or Torah, aka, the Law of Moses).

I cannot understand how anyone cannot see the distinction between the two. The truth is, most do "see" the distinction I'm drawing. They simply have determined to willfully REFUSE to accept that the two laws are distinct.

Sinai Covenant: The Sinai covenant is the covenant made between God and his people on Mt. Sinai, according to the Bible. The Israelites received God's Ten Commandments and agreed to keep them in exchange for his love, protection, and special treatment.

Moab Covenant: These are the words of the covenant which the Lord commanded Moses to make with the sons of Israel in the land of Moab, besides the covenant which He had made with them at Horeb.

So, these laws are clearly distinct in that they even lay the foundation of two different covenants.

Where does the NT distinguish the law added due to transgressions to only the book? I read and studied the NT references to law and found nothing to indicate this distinction.

And you quoted a kabbalah site?

[Aquila]

And so, John writes:

1 John 5:3
For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.

If one believes that these are the Ten Commandments, then one has to consider the 4th Commandment which commands that we remember the Sabbath Day:

Exodus 20:8-11 (KJV)
8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
11 For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

This commandment offers nothing grievous. It asks that we remember to set aside a "holy day", a day of spiritual devotion. The 7th day. It ask that we, and our entire households take time to rest and devote time for worship, reflection, and devotion on this day. This command extends to all servants, hired help, beasts of burden, and visitors. This commandment is predicated upon God's own choice to rest from His creative work to enjoy fellowship with His creation on the 7th day. And so, this commandment reflects a spiritual reality that predates even the fall of mankind.

How can a single day of rest and devotion be grievous?

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Where does the NT distinguish the law added due to transgressions to only the book? I read and studied the NT references to law and found nothing to indicate this distinction.

Something cannot be said to be "added" to nothing. When something is "added" it's implicit in the statement. It was "added" to what? The Ten Commandments given at Sinai. No one can deny that the covenant confirmed at Moab (book of the law) was added to the prior covenant confirmed at Sinai (Ten Commandments). We have to understand that while they are jointly applicable, they are glaringly distinct from one another.

And you quoted a kabbalah site?

No, I only plucked an image of a Torah scroll and valid points from a couple quick Google searches. Please don't play the political game of trying to discredit a valid point based on a source that isn't even relevant to the discussion. It only weakens your argument.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Aquila

And so, John writes:

1 John 5:3
For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.

If one believes that these are the Ten Commandments, then one has to consider the 4th Commandment which commands that we remember the Sabbath Day:

Exodus 20:8-11 (KJV)
8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
11 For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

This commandment offers nothing grievous. It asks that we remember to set aside a "holy day", a day of spiritual devotion. The 7th day. It ask that we, and our entire households take time to rest and devote time for worship, reflection, and devotion on this day. This command extends to all servants, hired help, beasts of burden, and visitors. This commandment is predicated upon God's own choice to rest from His creative work to enjoy fellowship with His creation on the 7th day. And so, this commandment reflects a spiritual reality that predates even the fall of mankind.

How can a single day of rest and devotion be grievous?

Jesus distinguished his commandments from the ten commandments in Matthew 5.

However, it's not the keeping of a day that is grievous. It is the demand that one is not saved unless one does, which makes takes salvation away from the cross.

Someone on this forum said it's a sin to not keep sabbath.

[Esaias]

"Torah" to Jews is TALMUD, mishna, gemara, halachah. Jews do not restrict "Torah" to the Pentateuch alone. Well, except for karaites, but that's a point for another day.

It doesn't look good when one makes declarations, and cites "the Jews" as an authority, and then completely misunderstands and misrepresents what "the Jews" actually believe. Kinda gives the impression you have no idea what you are talking about.

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Jesus distinguished his commandments from the ten commandments in Matthew 5.

Many look at it like this... just as the "book of the law" (Law of Moses) explained to Israel how God desired them to keep His 10 Commandments as a nation, Christ's commandments (the Law of Christ) teaches how God desires us to obey His 10 Commandments as a church. So, for us, the Law of Christ has replaced the Law of Moses.

However, it's not the keeping of a day that is grievous. It is the demand that one is not saved unless one does, which makes takes salvation away from the cross.

Someone on this forum said it's a sin to not keep sabbath.

Well, that is a touchy issue. But we have to start somewhere. I toss around these questions:

Was it a sin to not observe the Sabbath prior to Christ?

Did Christ keep the Sabbath?

How did Christ keep the Sabbath?

Is it a sin to violate any of the other commandments contained in the Ten Commandments?

Seeing that most preach that it is a sin to forsake the gathering together of the body on Sunday, why is it so outrageous to equate the same logic to a day that God appears to have sanctified from the time of creation?

Doesn't anyone who violates a given commandment out of the Ten Commandments feel that the commandment they violate is somehow, "less binding" than the one's they find it easier to obey?

Is it a matter of salvation or sanctification?

Do I keep the Sabbath to be saved, or do I keep the Sabbath because I am saved?

Do I count the Sabbath as an obligation, or a gift to me from my Creator?

Do I view the Sabbath as a sacred delight that I am blessed to partake in?

Is failure or inability to keep the Sabbath an unforgiveable sin?

If I or individuals I know violated a given commandment, do I not seek God for mercy and grace believing that He will be merciful and gracious? Why wouldn't God be equally as gracious and merciful to those who fail to keep the Sabbath or are unable to keep the Sabbath due to circumstance?

One should approach Sabbath keeping with as much love, devotion, mercy, and patience (towards themselves and others) as they would any other commandment as we sanctify ourselves and grow into the fullness of Christ.

Isaiah 58:13-14 (KJV)
13 If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the Lord, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:
14 Then shalt thou delight thyself in the Lord; and I will cause thee to ride upon the high places of the earth, and feed thee with the heritage of Jacob thy father: for the mouth of the Lord hath spoken it.

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by Esaias

"Torah" to Jews is TALMUD, mishna, gemara, halachah. Jews do not restrict "Torah" to the Pentateuch alone. Well, except for karaites, but that's a point for another day.

It doesn't look good when one makes declarations, and cites "the Jews" as an authority, and then completely misunderstands and misrepresents what "the Jews" actually believe. Kinda gives the impression you have no idea what you are talking about.

The Jews have stuffed "Torah" with so much junk since the time of Moses it's incredible. My point is the a distinction between the Ten Commandments that was a part of the covenant made at Sinai... and the the "book of the law" (the Pentateuch) that was added to that covenant in Moab 39 or more years later.