Angels reproducing with humans possible?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by thephnxman

We need to follow the thread and context of the scriptures in Gen. 4:26; Gen. 5:1-32; Gen. 11

This is the sequence:
Men (Seth and his generation) began to ask (invoke) the Lord God for his NAME.
Chapter 5 lists the names of men He deemed righteous , and their offspring:
God was making manifest the lineage of the Lord Jesus;
The Lord God makes a difference from those that are not His (the "daughters" of men); and those that are His, (the sons of God);
God is showing us that satan's plan is to corrupt God's seed (lineage);
Gen. 11:1-9 contrasts the descendants of men from those in Gen. 4:26!
Seth is seeking God's face; those men in Gen. 11 are seeking their own glory.

I gave the context...read it

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Aquila

It's important to note that the term "sons of God" in the HEBREW texts isn't the same as what we find in the GREEK texts of the NT. So, we're talking apples and oranges.

The word for God is also different from Hebrew and Greek yet are talking about the same God

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I can ask the same thing to you about Genesis 6.

But to answer you about binding, binding is commonly used in the entire bible, and it does not always mean what you imply here that it means. And we are talking about spirits.

The fact is is what is it that YOU have for your doctrine of two sets of fallen angels, without a plain statement saying there were two?

Seriously.

Yes, I believe the Scriptures imply that a subset of those angels who originally rebelled with Satan eventually chose to cross a line through a sin so insidiously heinous God chose to bind them until the day of judgment. Not even Satan himself had crossed this line.

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

The word for God is also different from Hebrew and Greek yet are talking about the same God

Yes, but the Greek phrase was never used to denote pagan deities as the Hebrew phrase was.

Why doesn't anyone want to discuss how Josephus interpreted Genesis 6??? I mean, Bro. Blume is a Preterist and has referenced Josephus many times as to historical events that allegedly fulfill prophecy in the first century. Why not give a close examination of what Josephus thought of Genesis 6?

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Aquila

Yes, I believe the Scriptures imply that a subset of those angels who originally rebelled with Satan eventually chose to cross a line through a sin so insidiously heinous God chose to bind them until the day of judgment. Not even Satan himself had crossed this line.

Well, there is no substantial Word for it, thought. It can only be derived.

Sincere thanks for your thoughts!

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by thephnxman

Listen, closely Beloved:
The Lord God spoke to Moses, saying, "...there shall no man see me and live...". Why? Because there was still something in Moses that kept him from attaining
the presence of God, and it also kept Moses from entering the Promise Land: he was only able to see it from a mount.

The Prophet Isaiah came to a place where he saw God's seraphims crying, "Holy, Holy, Holy, is the Lord of Hosts..."; and he thought he was about to die.
Why? Because he had entered into God's Holiness. It was Holiness that had cast out the angels from eternity, for their iniquity.

Understand this first: angels that "...had not kept their first estate...", are not allowed in God's presence. God is holy, and holiness surrounds God.
However, the angels that remained faithful are always in God's holiness, and therefore, in God's presence.

Job 1:6; 2:1__The "sons of God" did not go into the presence of God: they PRESENTED themselves to God; much like we do, when we pray! Then the scriptures assert,
"...and Satan came also among them...".

The "sons of God" that presented themselves to Him could not be the angels that had been cast out of eternity: they were men seeking God's face.

If the Lord gives you to understand that, the rest will be easy.

He wasn't saying those Angels were the Fallen ones. He was showing how Sons of God is used for angels

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Things are not a weak point just because you say so.

Agreed. But I can only state what it is to me.

Second you keep misquoting that verse and leaving out the word Heaven...it changes EVERYTHING. Why? Because Heaven is a spirit world not a physical worl. He is not comparing us to Angels but Angels IN HEAVEN

It changes nothing in my estimation. I can only tell you what I honestly believe. I don't expect everyone to think the same just because i say it is so. I think heaven is a term merely contrasting human beings from angels.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Aquila

Yes, but the Greek phrase was never used to denote pagan deities as the Hebrew phrase was.

Why doesn't anyone want to discuss how Josephus interpreted Genesis 6??? I mean, Bro. Blume is a Preterist and has referenced Josephus many times as to historical events that allegedly fulfill prophecy in the first century. Why not give a close examination of what Josephus thought of Genesis 6?

Sons of God or "a son of the gods"?

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Sons of God or "a son of the gods"?

"Sons of God".

[Aquila]

Josephus, historian, and Preterist resource interpreted Genesis 6 as it relates to the "bene ha-elohim" as follows:

"NOW this posterity of Seth continued to esteem God as the Lord of the universe, and to have an entire regard to virtue, for seven generations; but in process of time they were perverted, and forsook the practices of their forefathers; and did neither pay those honors to God which were appointed them, nor had they any concern to do justice towards men. But for what degree of zeal they had formerly shown for virtue, they now showed by their actions a double degree of wickedness, whereby they made God to be their enemy. For many angels (11) of God accompanied with women, and begat sons that proved unjust, and despisers of all that was good, on account of the confidence they had in their own strength; for the tradition is, that these men did what resembled the acts of those whom the Grecians call giants. But Noah was very uneasy at what they did; and being displeased at their conduct, persuaded them to change their dispositions and their acts for the better: but seeing they did not yield to him, but were slaves to their wicked pleasures, he was afraid they would kill him, together with his wife and children, and those they had married; so he departed out of that land." ~ Flavius Josephus, Antiquities of the Jews, Chapter 3 and 1.

Reference 11:
(11) This notion, that the fallen angels were, in some sense, the fathers of the old giants, was the constant opinion of antiquity.