Can A Spirit-Filled Believer Have A Demon?

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Luke

I agree that as a christian we can be attacked by the devil or a demon but not that we can be possessed by a demon or devil. Possession implies control and we cannot be controled by the devil and by God at the same time.

[TyronePalmer]

Originally Posted by Luke

I agree that as a christian we can be attacked by the devil or a demon but not that we can be possessed by a demon or devil. Possession implies control and we cannot be controled by the devil and by God at the same time.

There is a difference between being 'Posessed', and 'Demonized', please go back and read the original post and watch the message of Derek Prince if you would like to be enlightened on this biblical truth.

[Luke]

Originally Posted by TyronePalmer

There is a difference between being 'Posessed', and 'Demonized', please go back and read the original post and watch the message of Derek Prince if you would like to be enlightened on this biblical truth.

Is the term demonized even in the Bible?

[Luke]

One other question how does that teaching work with this verse:

1 Thessalonians 5:23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

How can a person have a demon in them and be sanctified (holy) wholly (entirerly)?

[TyronePalmer]

Originally Posted by Luke

Is the term demonized even in the Bible?

Check this out.

"In the New Testament, the Greek word 'daimonizomai' is used to express the presence of demonic spirits within a person. What this word means is: 'to be demonized; to be under the power or influence of a demon in certain areas; to have a demon.' The word 'possessed," however (in the KJV, for example), is a misleading translation for this Greek word. To English speaking people the term 'possessed' implies total ownership of something. This concept, as pertaining to the relationship between a demonic entity and a person, has no support in the scripture or in the original intent of the Greek word. There is no suggestion in the scripture that a demon has totally taken over a person as the word 'possessed' implies. (Can A Christian Have A Demon", Chris Simpson, 1995)"

Quote taken from this website:

http://www.deceptioninthechurch.com/demon1.html

[Luke]

Thayer's dictionary defines this word: To be under the power of a demon.

Strong's dictionary defines this word: to be under the power of demon.

Vine's expository dictionary defines this word: "to be possessed of a demon, to act under the control of a demon."

Nowhere does it mean to be under the power of a demon incertain areas. The addittion of the phrase in certain areas seems to imply that God shares individuals with the devil this is false and not found in scripture.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by TyronePalmer

Check this out.

"In the New Testament, the Greek word 'daimonizomai' is used to express the presence of demonic spirits within a person. What this word means is: 'to be demonized; to be under the power or influence of a demon in certain areas; to have a demon.' The word 'possessed," however (in the KJV, for example), is a misleading translation for this Greek word. To English speaking people the term 'possessed' implies total ownership of something. This concept, as pertaining to the relationship between a demonic entity and a person, has no support in the scripture or in the original intent of the Greek word. There is no suggestion in the scripture that a demon has totally taken over a person as the word 'possessed' implies. (Can A Christian Have A Demon", Chris Simpson, 1995)"

Quote taken from this website:

http://www.deceptioninthechurch.com/demon1.html

How would you explain the young man in Mark 9:17-27? The word "taketh" here is saying it means "to seize, to possess", from a root word being "oversee". An overseer is a ruler. I would think if the spirit was ruling the boy, he has totally taken possession.

Jesus didn't speak to the boy about whether or not he believed. He spoke to his father. What estate was this boy in that speaking to him wasn't an option. Jesus spoke to the spirit within him.

The passage also describes the boy's state as "pining". That means withering away.

Pretty intense situation.

[votivesoul]

Originally Posted by TyronePalmer

Where does the scripture say that 'the thorn in Paul's flesh was an idiomatic expression'?

By the fact that Paul didn't have a literal thorn stuck into his side, makes the expression an idiom by default.

I'm sure you know the story of Job right? Didn't God allow Satan to afflict a righteous man?

Job wasn't immersed by the Holy Spirit the same way Paul was. Additionally, being afflicted and suffering righteously, even under the hand of the devil, is not the same as being demonized.

And didn't God send a 'lying spirit' into the mouths of the false prophets of Ahab? 1st Kings 22:20-23

The false prophets were liars and idolaters. No wonder they were so susceptible to evil spirits. But they weren't believers, which is the thrust of your question and comments.

How about King Saul?

See above. Saul was backslidden and tormented by an evil spirit because he was fallen from grace. This situation, like the one above, doesn't apply to your original question.

And have you read the scriptures where Paul gave over some brothers to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, and to be taught not to blaspheme?

Yes, of course. But these people, being blasphemers, should not be considered believers. So see above.

The Lord said truly "My people perish for lack of knowledge".

Nice dig. But presumptuous, too. And presumption is usually based in the sin of pride, something God abhors.

[votivesoul]

Tyrone, it seems to me, and I could be wrong, that the real issue is not trying to rightly divide the Word so we can get at God's TRUTH, but so that you can use the Word to prove something you say you personally experienced, i.e. that you had a demon in your flesh but not your soul, and that you were delivered from it.

Since I wasn't there, I won't comment more except to say that, anytime we attempt to justify an experience by making the Word fit it, instead of using the Word to judge the validity of the experience, and, if necessary discredit said experience, we end up in some serious danger.

Please be mindful. You may, even unintentionally, be doing this.

[Luke]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

, anytime we attempt to justify an experience by making the Word fit it, instead of using the Word to judge the validity of the experience, and, if necessary discredit said experience, we end up in some serious danger.

Great statement of truth.