The Resolution of Matthew 28:18 and Acts 2:38

Originally Posted by mfblume

I agree with all you've said here. Bravo!

OK M.F. But whay can't you also see the obvious link between the Aaronic blessing formula and how it was referred to in a short hand manner and the exact similar Biblical way of referring to Water baptism in the same manner:

“The LORD bless thee, and keep thee: The LORD make his face shine upon thee, and be gracious unto thee: The LORD lift up his countenance upon thee, and give thee peace.” (Number 6:23-26.)

This Aaronic blessing formula was used by the priests constantly in the Old Testament Scripture, but when it is it is simply referred to in a shortened summary form. This is why we read of Levi blessing the people “in his name” (Deuteronomy 10:8), and the priests being commanded “to bless in the name of the LORD,” (Deuteronomy 21:50) or “to give a blessing in his name forever.” (1st Chronicles 23:13). So God doesn’t need to slavishly repeat the Aaronic blessing word for word, every single time that it was used, and so this shortened form “in his name” or “in the name of the Lord,” refers as a kind of shorthand back to the Numbers 6 formula.

The New Testament Baptismal passages (Acts 2, 8, 10, 19) need to be understood in the cultural context of precisely how the Old Testament uses formulas. For the reference to blessing “in his name,” or “in the name of the Lord,” also refers specifically to the full Numbers 6:23-26 Aaronic blessing formula. So likewise, the use of the name “Jesus Christ” or “Lord” or “Lord Jesus” in the book of Acts, also implies either to Matthew 28:19 as a specific baptismal formula, or a command to baptism upon the authority of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.