Praying to the Father or Jesus?

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

Now, I pray very much, intentionally, to both ...

God our Savior. I Timothy 2:3; Titus 1:3; Titus 1:4; Titus 2:13; Titus 3:4; 2Peter 1:1; Jude 1:25; Isaiah 9:6

I never have “both” in my vocabulary at any time.

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

God our Savior. I Timothy 2:3; Titus 1:3; Titus 1:4; Titus 2:13; Titus 3:4; 2Peter 1:1; Jude 1:25; Isaiah 9:6

I never have “both” in my vocabulary at any time.

2John.1

[9] Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

2John.1

[9] Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.

What does this scripture mean to you? It means God our Saviour to me. More to the point and more clearly, I would never say that I pray to “both”.

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

What does this scripture mean to you? It means God our Saviour to me. More to the point and more clearly, I would never say that I pray to “both”.

I was pointing out that John had both in his vocabulary in the same sentence. Just something to think about.

[votivesoul]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

God our Savior. I Timothy 2:3; Titus 1:3; Titus 1:4; Titus 2:13; Titus 3:4; 2Peter 1:1; Jude 1:25; Isaiah 9:6

I never have “both” in my vocabulary at any time.

Then your vocabulary isn't fully Biblical.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

Then your vocabulary isn't fully Biblical.

I don’t have a problem saying that I use both when I address God - either God or Jesus.

However, I do have a problem if someone, like yourself, says that they “Now, I pray very much, intentionally, to both...”

Praying “to both” indicates to me that you view God and Jesus as two separate entities. That can’t be true as Thomas would say, “My Lord and my God.”

It is clear to me that the Apostles always had in view the work that God had done - manifest in flesh. Therefore, I pray to one intentionally.

[Steven Avery]

And I have many of the dual addressing verses listed here:

Pure Bible Forum
Apostolic grammatical dual addressing
https://www.purebibleforum.com/index...g.50/#post-904

[Jito463]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

I don’t have a problem saying that I use both when I address God - either God or Jesus.

However, I do have a problem if someone, like yourself, says that they “Now, I pray very much, intentionally, to both...”

Praying “to both” indicates to me that you view God and Jesus as two separate entities. That can’t be true as Thomas would say, “My Lord and my God.”

It is clear to me that the Apostles always had in view the work that God had done - manifest in flesh. Therefore, I pray to one intentionally.

[TGBTG]

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

I may be easy to entertain. But this is Brother Nicodemus arguing and even being inspired by Hoffman. Think about it.

That’s classic!

[Steven Avery]

Originally Posted by Pres[LEFT

[/LEFT]sing-On;1593328]God our Savior. ... Titus 2:13 ... 2Peter 1:1 ...
I never have “both” in my vocabulary at any time.

Mistranslated in the modern versions, using the Granville Sharp Rule for Fools.

Correct is:

Titus 2:13 (AV)
Looking for that blessed hope,
and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

2 Peter 1:1 (AV)
Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ,
to them that have obtained like precious faith with us
through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: