Do All Speak With Tongues?

[Praxeas]

We actually get this from the Methodists who practiced "seeking" God for a confirmation of their salvation by experience rather than just knowledge alone

It's based on the idea that one will have an experience when one is actually filled with the Spirit

[Falla39]

At Pentecost the gift of the Holy Ghost was poured out for the first time. This was the birthday of the church.

In Corinthians we are looking at a church in Corinth. This is a church where Paul is setting in order the gifts of the Spirit. These people should have already received the Holy Ghost. You will never receive GIFTS of the Spirit UNTIL you have first received the GIVER of the the Spirit. Until you receive the Holy Ghost, and it will be evidenced by speaking with other tongues.

At Pentecost what were they saying in tongues that the onlookers heard? They heard them speaking in the onlookers own tongues the wonderful works of God.

Again, in Acts 2 those that the Holy Ghost was poured out on, spake with tongues for the first time. In Corinthians this is speaking to a church that has been started. Paul is teaching on the gifts of the Spirit that had already been poured out.

So many today get the Holy Spirit poured out in Acts 2, confused with the gifts of the Spirit, being explained to believers that are already filled with the Spirit.

Apollos was knowledgable in the scriptures, but knew only the baptism of John, the Baptist. The baptism of repentance. Priscilla and Aquila knew more and took Apollos aside and explained or expounded unto him the way of God more perfectly. It is truly a good thing to have the way of God to be expounded to us more perfectly.

Falla39

[Hoovie]

Mosh pit? Some seem to enjoy it. For me though? Not so much. I will settle for an encouraging sermon and an entreating prayer.

[Falla39]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

We actually get this from the Methodists who practiced "seeking" God for a confirmation of their salvation by experience rather than just knowledge alone

It's based on the idea that one will have an experience when one is actually filled with the Spirit

My late Great-grandmother, her daughter (my paternal grandmother) and her son, my father, were longtime Methodists. They repeated the "sinner's prayer" and were sprinkled in baptism. When my father was a young teenager, he went forward and said the sinner's prayer. In the days, weeks, etc. ahead, Dad became so concerned as he still cursed, had a bad temper, etc. He told his mother he didn't feel saved. Grandma took him to the pastor who said, "Lizzie, there is no way that he won't sin some everyday. The boy will just have to accept it by faith". To which his mother said to the pastor, "Well what did Jesus Christ die for! The Bible says HE died to save us from our sins, not in them"! Dad said she was proud of his Methodist mother when she said that!

A short time later, the old white-haired street preacher came to town, preaching the Acts 2 message on the street corner of this tiny town. As the song goes, "There was a reason, Jesus passed by". This was the beginning of our family coming to the knowledge of more truth they had never heard before.

Falla39

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

We actually get this from the Methodists who practiced "seeking" God for a confirmation of their salvation by experience rather than just knowledge alone

It's based on the idea that one will have an experience when one is actually filled with the Spirit

Isn't that what happened to the early church in the book of Acts? they had an experience that confirmed to them that they had been Spirit baptized.

[Stephanas]

Originally Posted by deacon blues

If tongues is the only sign that the HG has been given, how do we answer the problem that Jesus presents? He full of the Spirit and never spoke in tongues. John the Baptist, Elizabeth and Zaccharias all were filled with the HG and didn't speak in tongues. Moses was filled with the Spirit of God as well as the 70 elders and they didn't. Did those people all get an exemption? Did they get a different infilling?

The words of John in John 7:39 do make a difference between the experience of pre-Pentecost believers and post-Pentecost believers.

(John 7:37-39) In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink. 38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water. 39 (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

How do you interpret John's words "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" in light of your assertion that Elizabeth and Zacharias' Spirit infilling is the same as the 120 at Pentecost?

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by acerrak

if you look at ephesians 2:8-9

Ephesians 2:8-9
New King James Version (NKJV)

8 For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, 9 not of works, lest anyone should boast.

that word gift which is the Gift of the Holy spirit, the promise of God is the word Charisma, its the same word used to represent the gifts of the Spirit.

also your statement is wrong, if a person speaks with tounges then they have the gift of tounges, and they will always have it.

The word, gift, in Ephesians 2:8 is dorea in the Greek not charisma. Paul is speaking of the "gift" of salvation not the "gift" of the Holy Spirit.

they do not lose it
romans 11:29 For God's gifts and his call can never be withdrawn.

so if they speak in tounges at the baptism they will always be able to according to scripture. so we must accept what paul sais is true not all speak with tounges.

I disagree with your interpretation. My experience was that I spoke with tongues when I received the Holy Spirit and then I did not speak in tongues again for almost a year after that while I was in the throws of childbirth, and not again since then in almost 30 years. I've diligently sought after tongues with much prayer, fasting, and tears thinking that something was wrong with my walk with God. I can't speak in tongues if I wanted to and I won't fake it because the times I did speak with tongues, they flowed out of me without any effort or thought on my part. So why don't I speak with tongues, because I don't and never have had the gift of tongues. I had the initial evidence of tongues and then an odd one-off experience of tongues while going through labor pains.

I understand there to be an initial evidence of tongues for everyone who receives the baptism of the Holy Spirit which is not the same as the gift of tongues. That is why I don't speak with tongues.

also want to point out that Tounges is not the only sign given, mark 16;17 talks about other signs.

we also see soem prophesied, some spoke with boldness. tounges is a evidence of the spirit but not the only one

I believe those who spoke with tongues when they initially received the gift of the Spirit went on to prophesy. Boldness is not a gift of the Spirit nor is it the same, imo, as "power" or dunamis (Greek). The only sign given to us by the writers of the NT of Spirit baptism is tongues.

[acerrak]

Originally Posted by Falla39

Acerrak,
Have you ever spoke in tongues as the Spirit gave the utterance. Just a
question.

Falla39

i recieved the gift of tounges as i sought after spiritual gifts, awhile after i had recieved the Holy Ghost.

I had fruits of the Spirit before i had gifts of the Spirit

[Falla39]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

The word, gift, in Ephesians 2:8 is dorea in the Greek not charisma. Paul is speaking of the "gift" of salvation not the "gift" of the Holy Spirit.

I disagree with your interpretation. My experience was that I spoke with tongues when I received the Holy Spirit and then I did not speak in tongues again for almost a year after that while I was in the throws of childbirth, and not again since then in almost 30 years. I've diligently sought after tongues with much prayer, fasting, and tears thinking that something was wrong with my walk with God. I can't speak in tongues if I wanted to and I won't fake it because the times I did speak with tongues, they flowed out of me without any effort or thought on my part. So why don't I speak with tongues, because I don't and never have had the gift of tongues. I had the initial evidence of tongues and then an odd one-off experience of tongues while going through labor pains.

I understand there to be an initial evidence of tongues for everyone who receives the baptism of the Holy Spirit which is not the same as the gift of tongues. That is why I don't speak with tongues.


I believe those who spoke with tongues when they initially received the gift of the Spirit went on to prophesy. Boldness is not a gift of the Spirit nor is it the same, imo, as "power" or dunamis (Greek). The only sign given to us by the writers of the NT of Spirit baptism is tongues.

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by acerrak

i recieved the gift of tounges as i sought after spiritual gifts, awhile after i had recieved the Holy Ghost.

I had fruits of the Spirit before i had gifts of the Spirit

Here is a thread that might interest you and specifically a post by someone who claims (like I do) that he did not recieve the gift of tongues until a few years after initially speaking with other tongues.



http://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com...&postcount=169