Should we still observe the sabbath?

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

In what way was Peter compelling the gentiles to conduct themselves like Jews? By refusing to eat with them, which was the custom of Jews - they would not eat with gentiles nor even go into their houses (Acts 11:2-3). This was hypocritical, because he had previously learned the gospel truth about this (Acts 10:28). So Peter had dissimulated when certain Jews showed up and regressed by peer pressure to force the separation between Jew and gentile, as commonly practiced by Jews. Whereas previously, he treated Jew and gentile alike as equals before God.

I do see that as involved. However, I think there's more. Paul said that through Peter's act, in effect, he indirectly demanded that the Gentiles live like the Jews.

When Peter separated himself from the Gentiles upon the arrival of the Jews, it was an indication to those Gentiles that the way in which the Gentiles were living had to change. They had to do whatever they were not doing, that the Jews were doing. Then Peter would fellowship them. The gentiles formerly with Peter would feel led, due to Peter's authority, to make necessary changes of life so that they would be like the Jews in order to be able to fellowship with Peter.

This raises the question of what lives the Jews were living that compelled the Gentiles to adapt and likewise live in order to fellowship with Peter.

So, now the question is what was it to live like the Jews?

It was beyond the idea of not fellowshipping with Gentiles. It was changing a way of life so that the Jews would fellowship with them. If it was not more than fellowshipping with certain people, then the Gentiles would likewise stop fellowshiping with other Gentiles, but that would not cause the Jews to begin to fellowship them.

There was some form of life that the Jews were living that the Gentiles were not. And if the Gentiles start living in that same way, then the Jews would fellowship with them, too!

Galatians 2:14.. But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I do see that as involved. However, I think there's more. Paul said that through Peter's act, in effect, he indirectly demanded that the Gentiles live like the Jews.

When Peter separated himself from the Gentiles upon the arrival of the Jews, it was an indication to those Gentiles that the way in which the Gentiles were living had to change. They had to do whatever they were not doing, that the Jews were doing. Then Peter would fellowship them. The gentiles formerly with Peter would feel led, due to Peter's authority, to make necessary changes of life so that they would be like the Jews in order to be able to fellowship with Peter.

This raises the question of what lives the Jews were living that compelled the Gentiles to adapt and likewise live in order to fellowship with Peter.

So, now the question is what was it to live like the Jews?

It was beyond the idea of not fellowshipping with Gentiles. It was changing a way of life so that the Jews would fellowship with them. If it was not more than fellowshipping with certain people, then the Gentiles would likewise stop fellowshiping with other Gentiles, but that would not cause the Jews to begin to fellowship them.

There was some form of life that the Jews were living that the Gentiles were not. And if the Gentiles start living in that same way, then the Jews would fellowship with them, too!

Galatians 2:14.. But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?

They would have to be circumcised. That's basically the whole point of the dispute. By reinforcing the "no Jews eat with gentiles" rule, they were insisting the gentiles were unclean, even though they were Christians. So this puts pressure on the gentiles to BECOME JEWS in order to be given the right hand of fellowship. It is a demand they be circumcised, or else they were still in their sins. "Except ye be circumcised ye cannot be saved."

And, neither the "no Jews eat with gentiles" rule nor the demand they be circumcised is anything but a man made tradition of the scribes and Pharisees.

[good samaritan]

Originally Posted by Esaias

They would have to be circumcised. That's basically the whole point of the dispute. By reinforcing the "no Jews eat with gentiles" rule, they were insisting the gentiles were unclean, even though they were Christians. So this puts pressure on the gentiles to BECOME JEWS in order to be given the right hand of fellowship. It is a demand they be circumcised, or else they were still in their sins. "Except ye be circumcised ye cannot be saved."

And, neither the "no Jews eat with gentiles" rule nor the demand they be circumcised is anything but a man made tradition of the scribes and Pharisees.

Peter wasn’t circumcised?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by good samaritan

Peter wasn’t circumcised?

What?

[good samaritan]

If thou (Peter), being a Jew (circumcised), livest after the manner of Gentiles (uncircumcised)

Paul makes the statement that if Peter lives like the Gentiles (under the new covenant) then why compel the Gentiles to live like the Jews (under old covenant).

Circumcision was just a initiation and there where a lot of things that Gentiles would have to change to be accepted into the Jewish ranks. The manner of the Gentiles was far more than just circumcision, but it was the liberty that they had in Christ. Peter, no doubt understood this liberty and participated in it up until the time that other Jews came around. Dietary laws where no longer in effect, for Christ had cleaned the unclean and Peter was the first to get the memo. Although, he still was reverting back to the law because of peer pressure.

Bro. Blume's question, "what was the manner of the Gentiles?

Your response was "circumcision".

The answer you gave in response to Bro. Blumes question would infer that Peter practiced uncircumcision, which is not possible because it is something that cannot be undone.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by good samaritan

The answer you gave in response to Bro. Blumes question would infer that Peter practiced uncircumcision, which is not possible because it is something that cannot be undone.

Sorry but you completely misunderstood what I said. Seems to happen a lot in this thread...