Why I Am A Futurist - Page 23

good samaritan · #**221** 02-05-2015, 09:14 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Thank you so much, and thank you for your kindness in your reply.

Revelation 1:1 indicates that the author is telling the readers that the revelation is being brought to John by a messenger due to the events would soon take place. In Revelation 1:3 the reader is then told that they will be blessed who obeys its contents because the "time" was "near". In Genesis 27:41 the same language is employed by the writer to tell the reader that Esau was waiting to kill Jacob, but the days of mourning for his father were at hand, after those days would pass then he would kill his brother Jacob. Again, we have the term "at hand" indicating closeness of an event.

If God's Thousand Day Clock is the issue here, then how does it work with the above verses? No day is mentioned, but the reader is told the events will take place shortly and that time was at hand? We sit at 2,000 years later from this documents writings. But anyway, I await your explanation. Thank you again.

Do you think that Revelation events took place in 70 A.D.?

Evang.Benincasa · #**222** 02-05-2015, 09:16 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by good samaritan

Do you think that Revelation events took place in 70 A.D.?

Huh?

Evang.Benincasa · #**223** 02-05-2015, 09:19 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

So be honest Dom,

If you DO believe the resurrection came in 70ad tell us. If you deny Jesus came for the Church in 70 ad tell us that.

I asked you questions first, and you refused. Not only did you refuse but you totally ignored the post. You are supposed to have the truth concerning Post Tribulation. Want me to bump my questions forward?

good samaritan · #**224** 02-05-2015, 09:24 PM

Since you made the point Revelation 1 says things that must shortly come to pass do you believe that Revelation prophecy's are past tense. I thought the question is simple.

Evang.Benincasa · #**225** 02-05-2015, 09:25 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by good samaritan

Since you made the point Revelation 1 says things that must shortly come to pass do you believe that Revelation prophecy's are past tense. I thought the question is simple.

So, was my question?

Care to take a shot at it?

Evang.Benincasa · #**226** 02-05-2015, 09:26 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Thank you so much, and thank you for your kindness in your reply.

Revelation 1:1 indicates that the author is telling the readers that the revelation is being brought to John by a messenger due to the events would soon take place. In Revelation 1:3 the reader is then told that they will be blessed who obeys its contents because the "time" was "near". In Genesis 27:41 the same language is employed by the writer to tell the reader that Esau was waiting to kill Jacob, but the days of mourning for his father were at hand, after those days would pass then he would kill his brother Jacob. Again, we have the term "at hand" indicating closeness of an event.

If God's Thousand Day Clock is the issue here, then how does it work with the above verses? No day is mentioned, but the reader is told the events will take place shortly and that time was at hand? We sit at 2,000 years later from this documents writings. But anyway, I await your explanation. Thank you again.

bump