Is the sin of unbelief already forgiven? (I might have asked that already, please forgive me if I did)
The question did come up earlier in this thread:
I responded...
I would consider calling God a liar by ultimately rejecting the testimony He gave us of His Son a blasphemy against the Spirit (1John 5:10). Wouldn't you?
Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men.
Of course, the Cross "had the power to remit" this as well IF God had chosen to impute this particular transgression to Christ. Yet, only those sins imputed to Christ were forgiven on the Cross. God sovereignly chose not to impute the blasphemous rejection of His word.
Prax, this is an excerpt from my post #130 dealing with forgiveness vs justification:
I didn't say one could be justified and not forgiven, I said one could be forgiven but not justified. All who are justified are forgiven, yet not all who are forgiven are justified.
These are two very separate and distinct works of God: One is a work of remission performed on the Cross when Christ died, and the other is a work of justification when we believe.
The difference is in imputation -
Remission/forgiveness is where Jesus bears our sins. It is where our sins are imputed to him. God counted our sins against Christ and no longer against us. God 'laid on him the iniquity of us all' (Isaiah 53:6). God thought of our sins as belonging to Christ and 'made him to be sin who knew no sin' (2Corinthians 5:21). This took place on the Cross.
Justification is where Jesus' righteousness is imputed to us. Christ who was not a sinner was counted as a sinner because our sin was reckoned to him. Conversely, we who are not righteous by nature are counted as righteous because Christ's righteousness is reckoned to us. This takes place after the Cross, when we believe.
If are sins are remitted on the cross does it stand to reason our bodies were healed by His stripes?
That's always been a tough one for me. It seems to equate salvation with healing. Yet, even in Scripture believers were ill. When Timothy suffered some sort of stomach ailment Paul didn't tell him, "By His stripes you and your stomach are healed!"
Paul said, "... use a little wine for thy stomach's sake and thine often infirmities. ..."
it is not about physical healing. Read the context of the passage.
The writer of Matthew seemed to think it was about physical healing. Matthew 8:16-17
16 When the even was come, they brought unto him many that were possessed with devils: and he cast out the spirits with his word, and healed all that were sick: 17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Himself took our infirmities, and bare our sicknesses.
Wasn't physical sickness part of the curse? Didn't Jesus come to lift that curse?
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Hebrews 13:23 Know ye that our brother Timothy is set at liberty
The writer of Matthew seemed to think it was about physical healing. Matthew 8:16-17
16 When the even was come, they brought unto him many that were possessed with devils: and he cast out the spirits with his word, and healed all that were sick: 17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Himself took our infirmities, and bare our sicknesses.
Wasn't physical sickness part of the curse? Didn't Jesus come to lift that curse?
I think you are accidently grouping things togethor. He felt us as we are.
Isa 53:3 He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not. Isa 53:4Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. Isa 53:5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
Verse 4 is about his earthly ministry and how related to us in it and hoe even then we rejected him which is sin. Thus was "wounded" for and "bruised" for a purpose and is realized by "his stripes we are healed". God did not need to die on a cross for our physical bodies but Spiritual bodies realized which is a NEW CREATION. It is not about healing of disease. If that was the case he would have healed us of physical death period but guess what it is still under a curse of Adam. Jesus died and cured us ofthe curse of transgression in the flesh in which we draw to God now by his Spirit. In detroying the law of death in the flesh he created a new law in the Spirit. thus healing us by his grace(power) from sin. He destroyed the old medium for a perfected medium.
The writer of Matthew seemed to think it was about physical healing. Matthew 8:16-17
16 When the even was come, they brought unto him many that were possessed with devils: and he cast out the spirits with his word, and healed all that were sick: 17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Himself took our infirmities, and bare our sicknesses.
Wasn't physical sickness part of the curse? Didn't Jesus come to lift that curse?
An excellent observation.
Some commentators have offered the idea that Matthew was speaking of the earthly ministry of Jesus Christ - a time period that some have thought of as being a "foretaste" of the eternal kingdom when believers will dwell with God (Revelation 21:3).
1 Peter was written after the Ascension, so it purports to deal with a different circumstance; one where the "Tabernacle of God" is no longer with men - for a time period lasting until the eschaton.
This has been the best explanation that I have found. After 40+ years among "faith healers" I have yet to find anyone who can heal with the certainty that the Lord can save.
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