IT is the Holy Ghost!

[Felicity]

However, my point is that the Bible does OCCASIONALLY refer to the Spirit as 'it' as well as 'he', and the Word is God is certainly not confused in it's (!) grammar.

Yep! I often refer to the Holy Ghost as "it" but I can assure you I know of what I'm speaking. It's usually a reference to the moving of, or the power of, or the presence of, or the working of the Holy Ghost.

I like to feel the Spirit of God when IT starts moving over me
It's a feeling that starts at the top of my head and goes to the soles of my feet
There's no greater feeling in the whole wide world than to feel the Spirit of God
I like to feel what I feel when I feel what I feel right now.

Many of our choruses have this "IT" referred to.

[SDG]

I've gathered that the Bible is the KJV only to you Eliseus ... and looking at the Greek ... is just that to you ...

The writers did not use it ... like you and I use it today ... nor did they use a word equivalent to it ... but used the word this ... which connotes an entirely different meaning today

[SDG]

If you don't want your posts to be scrutinized btw .... don't hang w/ the big dogs!!!!!!!!!!!!! Woof!!!!

[Felicity]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

If you don't want your posts to be scrutinized btw .... don't hang w/ the big dogs!!!!!!!!!!!!! Woof!!!!

Arph!





LOL!

Daniel, stop being a twit, would ya?

The Greek word 'ho' is the definite article. It means what it means, not what you want it to mean whenever you want it to mean something. When you can show credentials that surpass those of the translators of the King James Bible, then I might listen to what you and all the other Bible correctors have to say.

But in the meantime, chew on these:

And John bore witness: “I saw the Spirit descend from heaven like a dove, and it remained on him.

The Holy Bible, English Standard Version © 2001 Crossway Bibles

And John bore witness, "I saw the Spirit descend as a dove from heaven, and it remained on him.
Revised Standard Version © 1947, 1952.

And John bare witness, saying, I have beheld the Spirit descending as a dove out of heaven; and it abode upon him.
American Standard Version 1901

And John testified, saying -- `I have seen the Spirit coming down, as a dove, out of heaven, and it remained on him;
Robert Young Literal Translation 1862, 1887, 1898

And John bore testimony, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.
Noah Webster Version 1833

(Yes, Mr Dictionary Expert himself used 'it' referring to the Spirit when translating the Bible... go figure...)

Yochanan testified, saying, "I have seen the Spirit descending like a dove out of heaven, and it remained on him.
Hebrew Names Version 2000

Need I go on with the other verses? no? Didn't think so. Thanks for playing, though, Daniel.

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Wrong again .... you are assuming that every language has 3rd person neuter pronoun equivalent to the English "it" ... which refers almost always to an inanimate object or animal

... As I sit and reflect about the Spanish language there is no direct translation for the word it as we use it in English ...

I could be talking to a baby or a dog ... and say Pasamelo ... which can be translated to "Pass me him" or "Pass me it"

Or the eso can be used in Spanish ... but it is not best translated as "it" but rather "that".

Once again the writers did not use the word as we see it in the KJV ... the only source you are utilizing... Plain and simple. The OP contingent that is KJV only should be livid.

Daniel, we need not reflect on the Spanish language, since the underlying text of Scripture is KOINE GREEK, not Spanish.

Here is the Greek from one of the verses I posted:

'...kai emainen ep' auton.' The word in question is 'meno' and means 'to abide'. Now Danny boy, since you are such a Greek scholar, please would you explain to us what the ending '-ainen' signifies in this particular instance?

Does it mean literally 'he abode' or does it mean literally 'it abode'? Can you tell us the GENDER of the word 'emainen', Daniel?

Without making anything up, that is...?

[chaotic_resolve]

Does it really matter? I don't see the fuss . . . I mean, it's been shown that Scriptures show ~both~ the use of "it" and "He" in references to the Holy Spirit.

This is about as silly as the debate over whether to say "Holy Ghost" or "Holy Spirit."

Exactly, Chaotic resolve!

However, some seem desperate to correct even the Bible...

[chaotic_resolve]

Jhn 1:32 And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.

I'm no Bible Scholar, and generally shy away from these types of debates, but isn't the latter portion of the verse: "and it abode upon him," speaking more in relation to the literal dove than the Spirit?

The Spirit descended from heaven . . . like a dove . . . and it abode upon him. I take the "it" to mean the literal manifestation of the dove, not the spiritual.

Am I way of[f] on this?

And Daniel, when you have exegeted the grammar of the word in question I asked you about, you may proceed to explain why the Spirit of God is referred to as 'to pneuma'. Tell us what 'to' signifies in KOINE GREEK, Daniel...