Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafon
Thank you! I've never considered viewing this as you've done here, but, admittedly, your explanation does seem more plausiblle or appropriate. I suppose my attempts to comprehend the identity of the angels has been "tainted" (for lack of a better term to describe it) by the many years of listening to, and reading the things others have published, although I've always had the lingering doubt of whether it be true or not.
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When I came into the faith, I had always been told and was led to believe that the "angel" to the sundry churches was the pastor, the man of God, who led the assembly from the bishop's chair.
I never questioned it. Believed it myself, generally speaking, and probably offered such an explanation to others.
But in the last two to three years, as I became more and more exposed to the idea of the righteousness of a plural eldership (and conversely, to the unrighteousness of a monarchial bishop), I began to re-evaluate the passage referring to the angels in Revelation.
While I was reading this article (which believes the angels are heavenly spirit beings):
http://www.gloriouschurch.com/pdf/An...n-Churches.pdf
I had the opposite thought that since the word just means messengers, and since John was trapped on Patmos, messengers would be needed to relay the documents he wrote to the intended recipients.
If you see a long look at the Greek, the preposition "to" or "unto" isn't even present.
The Greek looks like this:
Τῷ ἀγγέλῳ τῆς Ἐφέσίνης ἐκκλησίας γράψον Τάδε λέγει...
In English, it translates to:
the angel of the Ephesus called out ones write these things saying...
And then the verse goes into the words which Christ wanted written to the Ephesian believers.
So, if John is dictating to a messenger the very words Christ dictated to him, in a very real sense the "messenger" is writing to the various churches as John dictates to him what the Lord dictated to John.
It comes out to something like this:
The messenger of the Ephesian church writes these things, saying...
Notice "of the". It is a prepositional phrase (in Greek it's
tou). This is the Genitive (belonging/pertaining or originated in/from) masculine singular.
So, in a very real sense, the "angel" belongs/pertains to, or originates from Ephesus. And no wonder, since the messenger that came to Patmos to deliver the John's letter was from Ephesus (and so on and so forth for the other six assemblies).
The only other possible conclusion I can draw is that Jesus is referring to Himself as the messenger/angel, as if to say:
"The angel (i.e. Me) of the Ephesian church writes these things, saying..."