Innocent party

[Jay]

Much of the issue has been dependent on the circles that one traveled in. Brother Terry was divorced before he was brought into the truth, and there were still some who would not let him preach. Our family, and those we tend to associate with, have never held to the absolutest viewpoint on this. However, we do respect those who have different convictions than our own on this. It is a regrettable fact that people choose to discard the marriage covenant, but this should not penalize the remaining spouse who has done all in their power to salvage the marriage. As Paul said, if the unbelieving spouse chooses to leave, let them leave, and only remarry in the Lord.

[houston]

Originally Posted by Jay

As Paul said, if the unbelieving spouse chooses to leave, let them leave, and only remarry in the Lord.

He said that?

[Michael The Disciple]

Well should we accept what Jesus and Paul said? They cited clear exceptions in my view. If a woman commits adultery or abandons the marriage its as if she had died to the husband. If he remarries he only has one wife.

[Jay]

MTD, the same applies in the case of a woman who has a husband do the same to her.

[Nitehawk013]

Youtube John Macarthur on divorce. He gives a fantastic exposition on the scriptural teaching of divorce, including the "exception clause".

As for the Bishop being "the husband of one wife", it doesn't mean he could only be married once and never remarried. Some think it meant he couldn't be divorced and remarried, but that would contradict Paul and CHrists other teachings on the subject of remarriage. Others think it was in opposition to polygamy, but that practice was outlawed and not as common as many seem to think in that time.

The greek translates according to some scholars/lexicons as "a one woman man". It, according to these scholars (who I agree with) implies that the Bishop must be a man who is wholly given to his wife, in love only with her.

I think it is far to easy to think Paul was only intending to prohibit polygamy or remarriage among BIshops. I think his real purpose was to push that bishop must be wholly devoted and in love with his wife whomever she may be. That as an example to the saints, which BIshops are, he should set the bar for how to love ones wife. I wonder how many of our "BIshops" would fail the test because they show no passion or love to their wives, choosing instead to give all their time and love to a building and saints while his helpmate finds herself neglected and lonely.

[Sam]

Originally Posted by davd0cv

I have been raised around AMF brethren and this was always an issue in the ministry as well as the saints. Why should what applies to the ministry not apply to the saints?

Because the organization has some control over the preachers that they don't have over the members.

When the think about tv came up, tv was condemned and the resolution proposed was that the ministers were not allowed to have a television. Frank Curts said, "then why not say that nobody can have a tv in their home?" Some (don't remember the name said," "Why we'd lose all our members!" Bro. Curts answered, "Oh, then we're more interested in quantity than quality." I've heard Bro. Curts tell that story.

[Sam]

In John chapter 4 Jesus encountered the Samaritan woman and offered her eternal water. The He told her, "Go call your husband..." She replied I HAVE no husband." Jesus complimented her and said "you've told the truth when you said I HAVE (present text) no husband. You HAVE HAD 5 husbands" and the guy you are living with is not your husband.

Two truths here:
1. she had been married 5 times but at the time she was talking to Jesus she did not HAVE (present) tense. After divorce the spouse was an ex-husband or wife but was no longer a current husband. Today in some of our churches we would have said, "lady you have (present tense) husbands" However according to the scriptures these we're "former" or "ex" husbands.
2. just because she was living with someone did not mean they were married.

Jesus didn't seem so concerned about her marital status. He knew her heart. As far as I can remember right now, this is the first time He said that He was the Messiah. She went into town and converted many who knew what she had been and could see the change in her. IMO she had drunk of that living water in the same way others (like the apostles and others in Jesus ministry had.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by davd0cv

I'm not sure what you want me to explain? According to Timothy a Bishop is to have one wife. But unless i'm mistaken many men are leaning towards fellowship that believes you can re-marry in the case of fornication (adultry). I am just wondering why the sudden shift in beliefs

Ask them

[Bishop Cleatus]

Originally Posted by davd0cv

I'm not sure what you want me to explain? According to Timothy a Bishop is to have one wife. But unless i'm mistaken many men are leaning towards fellowship that believes you can re-marry in the case of fornication (adultry). I am just wondering why the sudden shift in beliefs

Sudden change in beliefs to a biblical one. That is odd. I got nothin'.

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by davd0cv

I'm not sure what you want me to explain? According to Timothy a Bishop is to have one wife. But unless i'm mistaken many men are leaning towards fellowship that believes you can re-marry in the case of fornication (adultry). I am just wondering why the sudden shift in beliefs

First, the Greek phrase translated "have one wife" is more literally translated out of the Greek as meaning "be a man of one woman". No sister wives or concubines (common in that era). Also, no mistresses. It's more about faithfulness to a single woman than a social status.

Some have proposed that if a man were divorced and remarried he has two wives. If this were true... is he entitled to have conjugal relations with his first wife??? Nope. Most would argue because she isn't his wife. Thus, his second wife is obviously his only wife. He is a man of one wife.