Do You Preach From Another Translation?

[Nahum]

NIV, NASB and KJV

[Ron]

KJV mainly, but I do use the Amplified, or NIV, NASB, to bring out a point after I have read the KJV.

[Malvaro]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

The Koran works really well for me ...

Dan, why are you always so intent on "rocking the boat"???

[Sam]

Why not use something older (and more Protestant) than the KJV?
Why not use the Geneva Bible.
The Reformers used it and did not use the "newer" Church of England Version forced on them by King James.
The Pilgrims who came to America used the Geneva Bible.

[Walk and Talk]

The NASB - the "Updated" edition.
At times I will use Rotherham's "The Emphasised Bible."
I never feel a need to use KJV.

[crakjak]

Originally Posted by Walk and Talk

The NASB - the "Updated" edition.
At times I will use Rotherham's "The Emphasised Bible."
I never feel a need to use KJV.

Rotherham's is often favored by those who believe in the greater hope, the reconciliation of all men. Do you?

BTW: Welcome don't remember seeing you before.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

The Koran works really well for me ...

Dan Abdullah Shabaz Alicea

[Walk and Talk]

Originally Posted by crakjak

Rotherham's is often favored by those who believe in the greater hope, the reconciliation of all men. Do you?

BTW: Welcome don't remember seeing you before.

Thanks for the Welcome. (I was on the NFC Board before it closed.)

If the "greater hope, the reconciliation of all men" is the doctrine of 'Eventually all men will be in the Promise Land, because Jesus died for all men", I must admit I have heard bits of the doctrine and am pondering some of the doctrine's points. However, I believe that there is an unpleasant eternity waiting those not found in the Lamb's Book of Life.

Is this the doctrine you are referencing? If not, could you let me know what you are meaning by "greater hope, the reconciliation of all men."

I use the Rotherham because I think he clarifies much in the Greek and Hebrew; and his use of an outline format and emphasis marks is a wonderful help.

Walk

[crakjak]

Originally Posted by Walk and Talk

Thanks for the Welcome. (I was on the NFC Board before it closed.)

If the "greater hope, the reconciliation of all men" is the doctrine of 'Eventually all men will be in the Promise Land, because Jesus died for all men", I must admit I have heard bits of the doctrine and am pondering some of the doctrine's points. However, I believe that there is an unpleasant eternity waiting those not found in the Lamb's Book of Life.

Is this the doctrine you are referencing? If not, could you let me know what you are meaning by "greater hope, the reconciliation of all men."

I use the Rotherham because I think he clarifies much in the Greek and Hebrew; and his use of an outline format and emphasis marks is a wonderful help.

Walk

Yes, that is correct I have been studying this for several years and I believe it is pervasive though out scripture. Sadly most folks read scripture thru the traditional lens of either annihilation or endless torment, which I believe blasphemes the character of our God and Heavenly Father. I do believe the wicked will face punishment that will be purifying, purging, corrective and curative.

[Walk and Talk]

Originally Posted by crakjak

... those who believe in the greater hope, the reconciliation of all men. Do you?

I am pondering many teachings that seem to have origins in the Roman teachings. I.e. I have heard that the teachings about hell (place where the unsaved person will go (not referencing the place the devil, Antichrist, false-prophet will go) being an "eternal" punishment are teachings derived from a mistranslation: a mistranslation based on doctrinal prejudice.

Where I am pondering and what I need to study in this doctrine is that it teaches the original language(s) use a word showing punishment for only an "age" or "season" with defined boundaries/limits. The word(s) in question, used in other passages, clearly show a use limited to an age and not an eternity. (This is what I have heard, and not something I have had time to study out. Therefore, at this time it is not a doctrine I currently embrace.)

There are other word studies I am pondering: For instance, I understand the passage that talks about the effeminate not making the grade is a translation/use of a word that is only derived from doctrinal prejudice. The word being used two other places clearly show it is in reference to those in king's courts with soft clothing - I.e. the rich. Most lexicons define the word in this one place as effeminate only because of doctrinal bent and not because of the use of the word elsewhere.

Another pondering is the implications of verses like 2 Cor 5:19 "that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself", and many other verses showing a clear distinction between God and the man, Jesus, the Messiah. Thus indicating that the man Jesus was not God - rather a man with God, the Father, within.

Walk