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Deep Waters 'Deep Calleth Unto Deep ' -The place to go for Ministry discussions. Please keep it civil. Remember to discuss the issues, not each other.


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  #11  
Old 01-01-2008, 01:11 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mfblume View Post
Wait a second...

Matthew 27:46 KJV And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Some of the old-timers in Pentecost used verses like that where Jesus is quoted as having spoken in Aramaic and said that these verses showed that Jesus spoke with tongues. If I remember correctly, I think Joel Hemphill stated that also.
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  #12  
Old 01-01-2008, 01:12 PM
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Sincere question: Why would we say Jesus was baptized in John's name simply because John baptized Him?

I would say he was simply baptized. No name was invoked. It was for righteousness' sake. Baptizing in a NAME is invoking the power of that name. John's name had no power to invoke!
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  #13  
Old 01-01-2008, 01:12 PM
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Originally Posted by Sam View Post
Some of the old-timers in Pentecost used verses like that where Jesus is quoted as having spoken in Aramaic and said that these verses showed that Jesus spoke with tongues. If I remember correctly, I think Joel Hemphill stated that also.
I was not that serious about that, but I do consider it a possibility.
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  #14  
Old 01-01-2008, 01:13 PM
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38 How Jesus (as God) anointed Jesus (as man) of Nazareth with the Spirit of Jesus and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for Jesus (as God) was with Jesus (as man).
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  #15  
Old 01-01-2008, 01:16 PM
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Originally Posted by mfblume View Post
Sincere question: Why would we say Jesus was baptized in John's name simply because John baptized Him?
...
Baptism/mikveh at that time was a triple self-immersion.
John witnessed Jesus' baptism/mikveh so it would be said that Jesus was baptized in the name of John.
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  #16  
Old 01-01-2008, 01:18 PM
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Originally Posted by mfblume View Post
I was not that serious about that, but I do consider it a possibility.
Some say there is a possibility that King Hezekiah prayed in tongues 700 years BC because of the wording of Isaiah 38:14
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  #17  
Old 01-05-2008, 06:04 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
38 How Jesus (as God) anointed Jesus (as man) of Nazareth with the Spirit of Jesus and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for Jesus (as God) was with Jesus (as man).
Bro Clinton, I'd say you are spinning that one. lololl
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  #18  
Old 01-05-2008, 06:14 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mfblume View Post
I was not that serious about that, but I do consider it a possibility.
Bro Blume, I used to teach that Jesus spoke with tongues. but I'm not sure, so I don't teach that anymore. If he was speaking in a tongue that he did not know then it would be a valid doctrine. There is some doubt, in my mind, about it being Aramaic, because those that heard him did not understand it.

Either way, I don't think it's something to be contentious over.
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  #19  
Old 01-05-2008, 06:31 PM
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Originally Posted by cneasttx View Post
Was Jesus baptized in his own name?
Jesus' baptism and His annointing by the Holy Ghost occurred at the same event.

John said, "He that sent me to baptize .... said to me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on.......is the Son of God."
Jn 1:33-34


This was John's personal sign to identify the Christ.
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  #20  
Old 01-05-2008, 06:47 PM
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Could this be the "anointing" of the Most Holy! Wasn't Jesus the temple

or "dwelling place of the Most Holy" while on earth. The Holy Place would

no doubt be where God dwells. Now He dwells in us, if so be the Spirit of

Christ dwell in you. Not man made temples made with hands.

Just some thoughts!

Blessings,

Falla39
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