divine flesh and original sin

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson

Since Jesus Christ was borned of a virgin ,He had no taint of original sin ,nor did He have a falled Adamic nature ,due to His virgin birth.
If the flesh of Jesus Christ was divine ,then how did His body die on the cross ? Because divinity can't be killed.
If God is eternal how can He die ?

How does a virgin birth make him not of the same nature as us?

[SDG]

Jesus was asked if the child's blindness was a result of a specific sin ... and if the sins of the father caused this "punishment" ....

He was never asked does the fact that dad is a murderer ... make junior a murderer ... but clearly Jesus would not dispute that we all deal w/ the effects of original sin.

[Scott Hutchinson]

Gen.3:15 mentions a seed of a woman ,not a seed of a man.

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Right, but I would not call the trees before the fall Divine, nor Adam before the fall Divine....

Because I don't consider Adam before the fall "Divine" I would not say Epley believes in Divine Sperm and since the discussion is really about Divine Flesh, which is flesh not simply heavenly in origin, but in nature, I can't equate what Epley said in the same manner.

As for DNA...DNA is simply a string of nucleic acids. One does NOT have to have Divineness nor fallen nature coded into it. If it comes from man it's from fallen man. If it is created by God, it's just created...it does not come FROM God. See what I mean? God is Spirit. If God created DNA or the male chromosome it need not be neither Divine nor fallen....all it is is the substance necessary to facilitate biogenesis (is that the right word?)

As an example I gave...if science were able to strand together nucleic acids to form a DNA strand, artificially, did they create Divine DNA?

There wasn't anything special about Adams DNA that made him without sin. He was without sin because he had not sinned yet.

BTW, let's assume then God had to create DNA that was already "fallen" DNA....whats wrong with that? God created light and dark...good and evil.That does not mean God created sinful DNA...it just means the nature by which man has the propensity to commit sin is there. Jesus was perfect right? Yet did he not have the same fallen human nature, without sin?

Oh...BTW...if DNA is sinful and a father who had murdered has a child, does the child become a murder too by nature? No.

Nor do I.

Here some definitions might be needed.

Maybe not divine since the word indicates what is God. Nevertheless, though not divine, it was not fallen nor had sin entered into it, or of the corrupt natue of death.

Which do you suppose the HG would created if he were to create a sperm? Would he create the fallen sperm or would he create the unfallen, pure sperm? I hardly can see how he could created what he is not Himself. The fall is a result of disobedience.

In a word, it is difficult for me to see how it is that the HG would create corrupt, fallen seed to impregnate Mary.

[SDG]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

How is he all God? Im just asking because it sounds like you are connecting the Holy Ghost causing the conception to His being All God....

Don't read into it more than you have to Praxeas ... do you deny he is all man and all God?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Jesus was asked if the child blindness was a result of a specific sin ... and if the sins of the father caused this "punishment" ....

He was never asked does the fact that dad is a murderer ... make junior a murderer ... but clearly Jesus would not dispute that we all deal w/ the effects of original sin.

I wasn't relating the two Dan. I was addressing the idea that DNA is sinFUL. As opposed to having a sin nature...and passing it on.

As for the blind child, the text shows clearly though born like that, it was not because his parents had sinned

[Scott Hutchinson]

You see Prax ,since there was no sex act to conceive Jesus ,then fallen Adam's nature could not be passed on to Christ.From a medical standpoint I can't explain this ,but if Jesus was born a sinner then He couldn't have been the ultimate sacrifice for our sin.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Don't read into it more than you have to Praxeas ... do you deny he is all man and all God?

No, but you included it with your statement about the Holy Ghost fathering him.....as if he inherited spiritual material just as he inherited genetic material from mother. It doesn't seem to be the same discussion I don't think. We aren't discussing if he is all man and all God....actually the discussion is really about him being all man it seems.

Being all God has nothing to do with where his flesh or dna came from. So that is why I asked

[SDG]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

I wasn't relating the two Dan. I was addressing the idea that DNA is sinFUL. As opposed to having a sin nature...and passing it on.

As for the blind child, the text shows clearly though born like that, it was not because his parents had sinned

Yet our DNA is tainted because of sin and death that is in the world ...even in our DNA.

Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson

Gen.3:15 mentions a seed of a woman ,not a seed of a man.

Biologically speaking, the woman has no seed.

The seed spoken of here is Christ. He was born of a woman under the law. It is the seed, the spiritual seed in which all nations of the earth is blessed.